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Series6 thinking - NASD Series 6 Updated: 2024

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Exam Code: Series6 NASD Series 6 thinking January 2024 by team

Series6 NASD Series 6

The Series 6 Examination is the Investment Company and Variable Contracts Products Representative Qualification
Examination. The examination is developed and maintained by the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA).
This Content Outline provides a comprehensive guide to the subjects covered on the Investment Company and
Variable Contracts Products Representative Qualification Examination (Series 6). The outline is intended to
familiarize examination candidates with the range of subjects covered on the examination, as well as the depth of
knowledge required. demo questions are also included to acquaint candidates with the types of multiple-choice
questions used on the examination. It is recommended that candidates refer to the content outline as part of their
preparation to take the examination. Candidates are responsible for planning their course of study in preparation for
the examination.

The Series 6 Examination is designed to assess the competency of entry-level Investment Company and Variable
Contracts Products Representatives. It is intended to safeguard the investing public by helping to ensure that
Investment Company and Variable Contracts Products Representatives are competent to perform their jobs. Given
this purpose, the Series 6 Examination seeks to measure the degree to which each candidate possesses the
knowledge, skills and abilities needed to perform the critical functions of an Investment Company and Variable
Contracts Products Representative. For more information about the permissible activities of an Investment Company
and Variable Contracts Products Representative.

Job Functions Number of Questions

Function 1 Regulatory fundamentals and business development 22

Function 2 Evaluates customers financial information, identifies investment objectives, provides information on investment products, and makes suitable recommendations 47

Function 3 Opens, maintains, transfers and closes accounts and retains appropriate account records 21

Function 4 Obtains, verifies, and confirms customer purchase and sale instructions 10

Total 100

The Series 6 Content Outline was developed based on the results of a job analysis study of Investment Company
and Variable Contracts Products Representatives. The job analysis process included collecting data about the job
functions, tasks and required knowledge of Investment Company and Variable Contracts Products Representatives
from a wide variety of firms using numerous data collection techniques, including a survey.

To ensure and sustain the job relevance of the examination, under the guidance of FINRA staff, a committee of
industry representatives (“the Committee”) writes, reviews and validates all test questions. Test questions are
subjected to multiple reviews prior to inclusion on the examination and each question is linked directly to a
component of the content outline. Test questions vary in difficulty and complexity. Each question will have only one
correct or best answer.

The bank of test questions changes constantly as a result of amendments to, or the introduction of, government and
self-regulatory organization (SRO) rules and regulations, changes in industry practice and the introduction of new
products. It is the candidates responsibility to keep abreast of such changes when preparing to take the
examination. Examination questions and their statistical performance are analyzed routinely by FINRA staff and the
Committee to ensure that test questions continue to be relevant to the functions of Investment Company and Variable
Contracts Products Representatives. Examination questions are updated when necessary to reflect current industry
practices and government and SRO rules and regulations.

The examination is administered via computer. A tutorial on how to take the examination via computer is provided
prior to taking the examination. Each candidates examination includes 5 additional, unidentified pretest questions
that do not contribute toward the candidate's score. The 5 questions are randomly distributed throughout the
examination. Therefore, each candidates examination consists of a total of 105 questions (100 scored and 5
unscored). Each scored test question is worth one point. There is no penalty for guessing. Therefore, candidates
should attempt to answer all questions. Candidates will be allowed 135 minutes to complete the examination.
Scratch paper and basic electronic calculators will be provided to candidates by the test administrator, and must be
returned to the Test Center administrator at the end of the testing session. Some test questions involve calculations.
Only calculators provided by the Test Center administrators are allowed for use during the examination.
Candidates will not be permitted to bring any reference material to their testing session. Severe penalties are
imposed on candidates who cheat or attempt to cheat on FINRA-administered examinations.

Following a well-established process known as standard setting, FINRA determines the passing score for the
examination based on the judgment of a committee of industry professionals with the designated registration. For the
Series 6 exam, the passing score is 70. This passing score reflects the competency needed to hold the designated

All candidate test scores have been placed on a common scale using a statistical adjustment process known as
equating. Equating scores to a common scale accounts for the slight variations in difficulty that may exist among the
different sets of test questions that candidates receive. This allows for a fair comparison of scores and ensures that
every candidate is held to the same passing standard regardless of which set of test questions he or she received.

On the day of the test, candidates will receive a report of their test results both on screen and in paper format at the
end of their test session. The score report will indicate pass/fail status and a score profile indicating performance
based on each major content area covered on the examination. It is recommended that candidates who fail the
examination review the information provided on the score report, as they may want to focus on the areas that they
performed poorly on when preparing to retake the examination. For security reasons, the examination and individual
test questions are not available for review after taking the examination.

FUNCTION 1 – Regulatory fundamentals and business development

1.1: Demonstrates understanding of fundamental regulatory knowledge and provides personal
and professional information required to be disclosed to obtain and maintain appropriate

Knowledge of:

• General industry regulations, including SEC, SRO, and state requirements

• Registration, qualification, continuing education, and termination of employment of associated

• Permitted activities for registered and non-registered associated persons


Article I – Definitions

Paragraph (rr) – Person Associated with a Member

Article III – Qualifications of Members and Associated Persons

Section 1 – Persons Eligible to Become Members and Associated Person of Members

Section 3 – Ineligibility of Certain Persons for Membership or Association

Section 4 – Definition of Disqualification

Article V – Registered Representatives and Associated Persons


1010 – Electronic Filing Requirements for Uniform Forms

1122 – Filing of Misleading Information as to Membership or Registration

1250 – Continuing Education Requirements

2263 – Arbitration Disclosure to Associated Persons Signing or Acknowledging Form U4

3110 – Supervision

3270 – Outside Business Activities of an Associated Person

4530 – Reporting Requirements

8312 – FINRA BrokerCheck Disclosure

NASD Rules

IM-1000-2 – Status of Persons Serving in the Armed Forces of the United States

1031 – Registration Requirements

1032(b) – Investment Company and Variable Contracts Products Representative

1060 – Persons Exempt from Registration

1070 – Qualification Examinations and Waiver of Requirements

1080 – Confidentiality of Examinations

3010(e) – Supervision (Qualifications Investigated)

3010(f) – Supervision (Applicants Responsibility)

3040 – Private Securities Transactions of an Associated Person

3050 – Transactions for or by Associated Persons

Securities Exchange Act of 1934

Section 3(a) – Definitions and Application of Title

Section 15 – Registration and Regulation of Brokers and Dealers

Section 15A – Registered Securities Associations

Section 17(f)(2) – Accounts and Records, Reports, Examinations of Exchanges, Members,
and Others

Rule 17f-2 – Fingerprinting of Security Industry Personnel

Investment Advisers Act of 1940

Section 201 – Findings

Section 202(a) – Definitions (of investment advisers and persons associated with an
investment adviser)

Section 203 – Registration of Investment Advisers

1.2: Solicits business by contacting and building relationships with customers and prospects in
person, by telephone, mail or electronic means

Knowledge of:

• Product definitions and classifications

• Required approvals and content standards of public communications: retail communications,
institutional communications, correspondence, research reports, telephone solicitations

• Appropriate use of professional designations

• Definition of regulated investment company by the Internal Revenue Code

• “Conduit” or “pipeline” theory, required distribution of income and realized capital gains

• “Do-not-call” lists and other telemarketing requirements


2210 – Communications with the Public

2212 – Use of Investment Companies Rankings in Retail Communications

2213 – Requirements for the Use of Bond Mutual Fund Volatility Rating

2214 – Requirements for the Use of Investment Analysis Tools

3160 – Networking Arrangements Between Members and Financial Institutions

3170 – Tape Recording of Registered Persons by Certain Firms

3230 – Telemarketing

4512 – Customer Account Information

5230 – Payments Involving Publications that Influence the Market Price of a

NASD Rules

IM-2210-2 – Communications with the Public About Variable Life Insurance and Variable

Securities Act of 1933

Section 2 – Definitions; Promotion of Efficiency, Competition, and Capital Formation

(definitions of “offer to sell” and “prospectus”)

Section 5 – Prohibitions Relating to Interstate Commerce and the Mails

Section 17 – Fraudulent Interstate Transactions

Rule 134 – Communications Not Deemed a Prospectus

Rule 482 – Advertising by an Investment Company as Satisfying Requirements of Section

10 of Securities Act of 1933

Investment Company Act of 1940

Section 2 – General Definitions

Section 3 – Definition of Investment Company

Section 4 – Classification of Investment Companies

Section 5 – Subclassification of Management Companies

Section 6 – Exemptions

Section 8 – Registration of Investment Companies

Rule 34b-1 – Sales Literature Deemed to Be Misleading

1.3: Discusses the products and services offered with customers and prospects and distributes

offering and disclosure documents

Knowledge of:

• Content and delivery of prospectuses, Statement of Additional Information (SAI), and other offering


• Networking arrangements

• Regulations related to marketing/prospecting

• Initial privacy disclosures to customers (e.g., definitions, privacy and opt-out notices, disclosure

limitations, exceptions)


2020 – Use of Manipulative, Deceptive, or other Fraudulent Devices

2266 – SIPC Information


2420 – Dealing with Non-Members

Securities Exchange Act of 1934

Section 3(a)(4)(B) – Definitions and Application, Broker (Exception for Certain Bank


Section 10 – Manipulative and Deceptive Devices

Rule 10b-3 – Employment of Manipulative and Deceptive Devices by Brokers or Dealers

Securities Act of 1933

Section 10 – Information Required in Prospectus

Section 23 – Unlawful Representations

Regulation D – Rules Governing the Limited Offer and Sale of Securities Without

Registration Under the Securities Act of 1933

Rule 431 – Summary Prospectuses

Rule 498 – Summary Prospectuses for Open-End Management Investment Companies

Rule 501 – Definitions and Terms Used in Regulation D

Rule 506 – Exemption for Limited Offers and Sales Without Regard to Dollar Amount of


Investment Company Act of 1940

Section 35 – Unlawful Representations and Names

Rule 35d-1– Investment Company Names

1.4: Conducts seminars and holds other public forums with customers and prospects, and

obtains appropriate approvals

Knowledge of:

• Definitions of retail communications, institutional communications and correspondence, including

categorization of public appearances, seminars and related sales literature and advertising

• Regulations regarding communications with the public

• Standards and approval of communications


2210 – Communications with the Public


IM-2210-2 – Communications with the Public About Variable Life Insurance and Variable


Securities Act of 1933

Section 12 – Civil Liabilities Arising in Connection with Prospectuses and Communications

Rule 135a – Generic Advertising

Rule 135b – Materials Not Deemed an Offer to Sell or Offer to Buy Nor a Prospectus

Rule 156 – Investment Company Sales Literature

Rule 482 – Advertising by an Investment Company as Satisfying Requirements of Section

10 of Securities Act of 1933

Investment Company Act of 1940

Section 30(b) – Periodic and Other Reports; Reports of Affiliated Persons

Rule 34b-1 – Sales Literature Deemed to be Misleading

FUNCTION 2 – Evaluates customers financial information, identifies

investment objectives, provides information on investment products, and

makes suitable recommendations

2.1: Gathers customers financial and non-financial information to identify, analyze, and assess

risk tolerance, investment experience and sophistication level

Knowledge of:

• Essential facts regarding customers and customer relationships

• Financial and personal profile of a customer (e.g., age, other investments, financial situation and

needs, tax status, investment objectives, investment experience, investment time horizon, liquidity

needs, risk tolerance)

• Reasonable-basis suitability, customer-specific suitability and quantitative suitability

• Investment strategies and recommendations to hold


2010 – Standards of Commercial Honor and Principles of Trade

2090 – Know Your Customer

2111 – Suitability

2111.03 – Recommended Strategies

2111.05 – Components of Suitability Obligations

2.2: Makes suitable investment recommendations based on customers current investment profile,

including financial status, tax status, and investment objectives and explains to customers

how recommended products are structured and priced and the risks associated with the

underlying investments

Knowledge of:

• Investment profile and strategies

• Types of investment returns (e.g., dividends, capital gains, return of capital)

• Securities markets (e.g., exchange markets, over-the-counter (OTC)/negotiated market, new issue

market (e.g., primary offering, role of investment banker))

• Fair dealings with customers and appropriate business conduct (e.g., application, definitions, sales

charges, withhold orders, refund of sales charges, dealer concessions, member compensation,

execution of portfolio transactions, breakpoint sales)

• FINRAs cash and non-cash compensation regulations (e.g., gifts and business entertainment


• Insider trading and prohibited activities (e.g., churning, front running, switching, commingling,

unauthorized trading, guarantees against losses, selling away)

• Capitalization, pricing, secondary market trading, and redeemability

• Types of underlying securities

° Equity securities: Definitions and features of common stock, preferred stock and other

types of equity securities (e.g., ADRs, rights, and warrants)

° Debt securities: Definitions and features of corporate bonds and other debt securities

(e.g., zero coupon bond, convertible bond, mortgage-backed securities (pass through),

collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs), asset-backed securities (ABS))

° Options: definition and features

° U.S. Treasury securities (e.g., Treasury bills, notes, and bonds, Separate Trading of

Registered Interest and Principal Securities (STRIPS), and Treasury Inflation

Protection Securities (TIPS))

° U.S. government agencies securities (e.g., Government National Mortgage

Association (GNMA) securities, Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA)

securities, Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (FHLMC) securities) issuing

agencies and their purposes, risks, payment of interest and principal

° Municipal bonds (General Obligation (GO) bonds, Revenue bonds)

° Other types of debt securities and money market instruments, including but not limited

to: corporate commercial paper, brokered certificates of deposit (CDs) and bankers


• Other investment types, including but not limited to: Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs) and hedge


• Variable annuities, deferred variable annuities and variable life (fees and charges, premiums,

riders, investment options, death benefits and payout options)

• Tax considerations

° Mutual fund investor activities, reporting dividend and capital gains distributions to IRS

and state tax agency, tax treatment of securities transactions and realized/unrealized

net capital gains/losses, exchanges as taxable event, shareholders tax basis (e.g.,

offering price, exchange of securities, gift of securities, inheritance of securities,

reinvested dividends and capital gains distributions)

° Determining holding period of securities (e.g., trade date, acquisition, redemption,

wash sale rule)

° Tax treatment of variable annuity contracts (e.g., accumulation period, annuitization

period, 72(t) taxation of annuity payments, withdrawals and surrenders, death benefits,

1035 exchanges)

° Tax treatment of variable life insurance to the policyholder (e.g., during the life of the

policy, upon the death of the insured, upon full or partial surrender of the policy, 1035

exchanges, modified endowment contract (MEC))


2000 Series – Duties and Conflicts

2060 – Use of Information Obtained in Fiduciary Capacity

2111 - Suitability

2150 – Improper Use of Customers Securities or Funds; Prohibition Against Guarantees

and Sharing in Accounts

2320 – Variable Contracts of an Insurance Company

2330 – Members Responsibilities Regarding Deferred Variable Annuities

2342 – “Breakpoint” Sales

3220 – Influencing or Rewarding Employees of Others

3240 – Borrowing From or Lending to Customers

NASD Rules

IM-2420-1 — Transactions Between Members and Non-Members

IM-2420-2 — Continuing Commissions Policy

1060(b) – Persons Exempt from Registration

2830 – Investment Company Securities


G-19 – Suitability of Recommendations and Transactions; Discretionary Accounts

Securities Exchange Act of 1934

Section 3(a) – Definitions and Application (Definitions of broker, dealer, security,

investment contract)

Section 20A – Liability to Contemporaneous Traders for Insider Trading

Section 21A – Civil Penalties for Insider Trading

Rule 10b-5 – Employment of Manipulative and Deceptive Devices

Securities Act of 1933

Section 2 – Definitions; Promotion of Efficiency, Competition, and Capital Formation

(Definitions of issuer and underwriter)

Investment Company Act of 1940

Section 8(b) — Registration of Investment Companies

Section 11 — Offers of Exchange

Section 12 — Functions and Activities of Investment Companies

Rule 12b-1 — Distribution of Shares by Registered Open-End Management Investment


Section 13 — Changes in Investment Policy

Section 19 — Payments or Distributions

Rule 19a-1 — Written Statement to Accompany Dividend Payments by Management


Rule 19b-1 — Frequency of Distribution of Capital Gains

Section 22 — Distribution, Redemption, and Repurchase of Redeemable Securities

Rule 22c-1 — Pricing of Redeemable Securities For Distribution, Redemption and


Rule 22d-1 — Exemption From Section 22(d) to Permit Sales of Redeemable Securities at

Prices Which Reflect Sales Loads Set Pursuant to a Schedule

Rule 22d-2 — Exemption From Section 22(d) for Certain Registered Separate Accounts

Rule 22e-1 — Exemption From Section 22(e) During Annuity Payment Period of Variable

Annuity Contracts Participating in Certain Registered Separate Accounts

Section 23 — Distribution and Repurchase of Securities: Closed-End Companies

Section 35 — Unlawful Representations and Names

Section 37 — Larceny and Embezzlement

Insider Trading and Securities Fraud Enforcement Act of 1988

Section 3 - Civil Penalties of Controlling Persons for Illegal Insider Trading by Controlled


Section 4 - Increases in Criminal Penalties

2.3: Provides appropriate disclosures concerning products, risks, services, costs, fees, current

quotes and explains pricing method

Knowledge of:

• Definitions, characteristics, and concepts of products, types of accounts, and plans

• Price and yield terms (e.g., bid, ask, NAV, premium, par)

• Tax treatment, contributions, accumulation, withdrawals, account ownership, beneficiaries,

benefits, required minimum distributions (RMD), and rollovers and transfers

• Retirement and tax advantaged plans

° Types of individual retirement accounts (e.g., IRAs: traditional, Roth and SEP)

° Employer-sponsored retirement plans (e.g., Simplified Employee Pension Plan (SEP),

Savings Incentive Match Plans for Employees (SIMPLE), IRA and 401(k), 403(b) and

403(b)(7); 501(c)(3), and 457 plans, Employee Retirement Income Security Act


° Non-qualified deferred compensation

° Education plans (e.g., 529 College Savings Plans, Coverdell Education Savings Plan)

• Open-end investment company

° Fund shares, important factors in comparison of funds, structure and operation (e.g.,

functions of the board of directors, investor advisor, underwriter/distributor, custodian,

and transfer agent), rights of shareholders, exchange privileges within families of

funds, automatic reinvestment of dividend income and capital gains distributions,

systematic purchase and withdrawal plans, performance, dollar cost averaging (DCA)

• Mutual fund

° Types of portfolios and funds (e.g., money market, fixed income, equity, specialized)

° NAV per share, offering price, ex-dividend, share class, SEC Rule 12b-1 distribution

plans, letter of intent, rights of accumulation,

° Fees, charges, and expenses including no load, load (e.g., front-end, back-end),

management fees, 12b-1 fees, administrative expenses, redemption fee, reduced

sales charges/quantity discounts, and breakpoints

• Variable annuity and variable life insurance

° Insurance company separate accounts/general accounts (Exempt under 3a-8 of the

Securities Act of 1933, Investment Company Act of 1940 Section 2(a)(37))

° Valuation of variable annuity contracts (accumulation units, annuitization units,

assumed interest rate (AIR), relationship between AIR and actual rate of return)

° Variable life insurance (fixed and flexible premium types)

° Fees, charges, and expenses including management fees, 12b-1 fees, mortality and

expense charges, administrative expenses, payout or withdrawal plans, conversion

privilege, restrictions, contingent deferred sales charge, and reduced sales

charges/quantity discounts

• Unit Investment Trust (UIT)

• Closed-end fund

° Capitalization, pricing, distribution, redemption restrictions


2330 – Members Responsibilities Regarding Deferred Variable Annuities

2330(b) – Recommendation Requirements

2330(e) – Training

Securities Act of 1933

Section 3a-8 – Classes of Securities under this Title

Investment Company Act of 1940

Section 2(a)(37) – General Definitions

Rule 12b-1 – Distribution of Shares by Registered Open-End Management Investment


2.4: Provides explanations to customers regarding how economic events and investment risk

factors may impact investments

Knowledge of:

• Investment risk factors (e.g., call, capital, credit, currency, inflationary, interest rate, liquidity,

market (systematic, non-systematic), social and political, pre-payment, reinvestment, timing)

• Concept of risk/reward and the effects of diversification

• Types of investment strategies

• Sources of market and investment information (e.g., news outlets, internet, rating agencies,

research reports) and economic factors (e.g., inflation, deflation, monetary policy, economic policy)

• The role of the Federal Reserve Board

• Changing interest rates and the effect on money supply, fiscal policy, federal taxation and spending

• International economic factors (e.g., currency exchange rates, balance of trade, gross domestic

product (GDP))

FUNCTION 3 – Opens, maintains, transfers and closes accounts and

retains appropriate account records

3.1: Provides information and disclosures to customers regarding various account types,

characteristics, and restrictions

Knowledge of:

• Account registration types (e.g., individual, JTWROS, UGMA)

• Distribution elections (e.g., cash, reinvestment)

3.2: Obtains and updates customer information and documentation necessary to open, maintain,

and close the account

Knowledge of:

• Customer screening (e.g., Customer Identification Program (CIP), determining whether a customer

is an associated person of another broker-dealer)

• Account authorizations and legal documents (e.g., power of attorney, authorized account user,

discretionary accounts, Transfer on Death (TOD), beneficiary forms)

• Recordkeeping (e.g., retention of customer and firm-related records)

• Customer account record maintenance (e.g., update personal information, holding of customer

mail, sending required SEC Rule 17a-3 notifications)

• Transferring customer accounts between broker-dealers (e.g., Automated Customer Account

Transfer Service (ACATS))

• Account registration changes and internal transfers (e.g., TOD, divorce)

• Delivery of annual reports and notices of corporate actions (e.g., proxy statements)


2090 – Know Your Customer

2251 – Forwarding of Proxy and Other Issuer-Related Materials

2267 – Investor Education and Protection

3150 – Holding of Customer Mail

3250 – Designation of Accounts

4510 Series – Books and Records Requirements

11870 – Customer Account Transfer Contracts

NASD Rules

2510 – Discretionary Accounts

Securities Exchange Act of 1934

Rule 17a-3 – Records to Be Made by Certain Exchange Members, Brokers and Dealers

Rule 17a-3(a)(9) – Customer Account Information

Rule 17a-3(a)(17) – Customer Account Records and Updates

Rule 17a-4 – Records to Be Preserved by Certain Exchange Members, Brokers and


Rule 17a-4(b)(6) – Records relating to discretionary authority

Rule 17a-8 – Financial Recordkeeping and Reporting of Currency and Foreign


Regulation S-P – Privacy of Customer Financial Information and Safeguarding Personal



Section 326 – Customer Identification Programs

3.3: Identifies and responds appropriately to suspicious customer account activity for the life of

an account

Knowledge of:

• Anti-Money Laundering (AML) compliance procedures, program, and reporting (e.g., Bank Secrecy

Act (BSA), Office of Foreign Asset Control (OFAC) Specially Designated Nationals (SDN) list,

Currency Transactions Reports (CTRs), Customer Identification Program (CIP), Suspicious Activity

Reports (SARs))

• Circumstances for notifying FinCEN or refusing or restricting activity in an account and/or closing



3310 – Anti-Money Laundering Compliance Program


Section 314 – Cooperative Efforts to Deter Money Laundering

Section 352 – Anti-Money Laundering Programs

FUNCTION 4 – Obtains, verifies, and confirms customer purchase and sale


4.1: Verifies, enters and monitors orders in accordance with customers instructions and

regulatory requirements and reports trade executions to customers

Knowledge of:

• Cash accounts (e.g., prompt payment for securities purchased, extension of time, frozen accounts)

• Market terms (e.g., trade date, settlement date, ex-dividend date)

• Delivery requirements and settlement of transactions

• Trade execution activities (e.g., market timing, late trading, prompt payment for securities

purchased, extension of time, frozen accounts, prohibition on arranging loans for others)

• Information required on an order ticket

• Sharing of referral fees and commissions

• Confirmations and account statements


2232 – Customer Confirmations

4510 – Books and Records Requirements

4514 – Authorization Records for Negotiable Instruments Drawn From a Customers


4515 – Approval and Documentation of Changes in Account Name or Designation

5310 – Best Execution and Interpositioning

11860 – COD Orders

NASD Rules

2340 – Customer Account Statements

Securities Exchange Act of 1934

Section 17 – Accounts and Records, Reports, Examinations of Exchanges, Members, and


Rule 10b-10 — Confirmation of Transactions

Rule 17a-3(a)(6) and (a)(7) – Order Tickets and Memoranda of Purchases and Sales

Rule 17a-3(a)(19) – Records to Be Made by Certain Exchange Members, Brokers and


Federal Reserve Board

Regulation T – Credit by Brokers and Dealers

4.2: Informs the appropriate supervisor and assists in the resolution of trade discrepancies,

possible errors, disputes, and complaints

Knowledge of:

• Customer complaint procedures

• Arbitration procedures

Investigations and sanctions


2080 – Obtaining an Order of Expungement of Customer Dispute Information from the

Central Registration Depository (CRD) System

3110 – Supervision

4513 – Records of Written Customer Complaints

4530 – Reporting Requirements

8000 Series – Investigations and Sanctions

9000 Series – Code of Procedure

12000 Series – Code of Arbitration Procedure for Customer Disputes

13000 Series – Code of Arbitration Procedure for Industry Disputes

14000 Series – Mediation Ground Rules

NASD Series 6
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NASD Series 6
Question: 194
All of the following would create Deflation in the U.S. economy EXCEPT:
A. Increasing taxes
B. A decline in the general level of prices
C. Reduction in the supply of money
D. More government spending
Answer: D
Deflation is a general decline in the prices of goods and services. Deflation can occur from
an increase in taxes, less government spending, and a reduction in the money supply. It is
usually caused by a slowdown in demand coupled with an adequate supply
Question: 195
The security that offers the best protection against purchasing power risk or inflation is
which of the following?
A. Treasury bond
B. Fixed annuity
C. Common stock
D. Certificate of deposit
Answer: C
Debt securities and investments that promise fixed rates of returns are the most susceptible
to purchasing power risk or inflation. Fixed annuities, CDs, and treasury bonds all fall
under these categories
Question: 196
An investor that holds a corporate bond until maturity will be exposed to all of the
following risks EXCEPT:
A. Call risk
B. Inflationary Risk
C. Credit risk
D. Interest rate risk
Answer: D
At maturity date, it makes neither difference what the bonds coupon is nor its relationship to
current interest rates. The bond always pays off at par. Inflation, credit risk, and call risk are
all risks associated with buying corporate bonds
Question: 197
Which of the following can be found on the corporate Balance Sheet?
I. Working Capital,
II. Accounts Payable,
III. Inventory,
IV. Current Ratio
A. II, III, and IV
B. I, II, III, and IV
C. II and III only
D. I and II only
Answer: B
The balance Sheet is also known as the statement of financial condition it is used as a
snapshot picture of a company at a specific date in time. The balance Sheet compares
corporate assets to liabilities, the total assets minus total liabilities equals net worth
Question: 198
Which of the following statements concerning Inflation are Correct?
I. A higher rate of inflation usually leads to increasing interest rates,
II. A higher rate of inflation usually leads to lower interest rates,
III. Inflation deteriorates purchasing power,
IV. Inflation has no relationship to the rise in prices of good and services
A. I and III only
B. I, III, and IV
C. II, III, and IV
D. II and III only
Answer: A
Inflation is the economic condition that is characterized by continuously rising prices for
goods and services. Inflation deteriorates purchasing power and typically has a negative
effect on interest-rate sensitive securities, a higher rate of inflation usually leads to
increased interest rates
Question: 199
If the value of the US dollar declines relative to foreign currencies, which of the following
would be true?
I. US exports would increase,
II. Foreign imports would decrease,
III. Foreign products become cheaper in the US,
IV. US exports would decrease
A. II, III, and IV
B. II and IV only
C. I and II only
D. III and IV only
Answer: C
When the value of the US dollar is high, importers benefit and exporters suffer. When the
US dollar has weakened, importers suffer and exporters benefit. As the US dollar declines
relative to foreign currencies, foreign products become more expensive to purchase in the
US. US exports then become more cheaper and competitive for foreigners, thus resulting in
an increase in US exports and a decrease of foreign imports into the United States
Question: 200
The risk found in trading thinly held issues or those that lack marketability is best known
A. Liquidity Risk
B. Exchange Rate Risk
C. Default Risk
D. Business Risk
Answer: A
Liquidity is the ability to convert assets into cash or cash equivalents without significant
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Cultivating critical thinking skills should be a top priority for any business that wants to succeed in today’s complex and rapidly changing world.

According to the World Economic Forum, “analytical thinking, creativity, and flexibility will be among the most sought-after skills” by 2025, yet few companies invest in such training.

Critical thinking is an essential skill that enables individuals to analyze, evaluate, and synthesize information to make informed decisions. In today's fast-paced, complex, and dynamic work environment, critical thinking is more critical than ever before. It is crucial for organizations to prioritize critical thinking skills among their employees to make well-informed decisions and stay ahead in the competitive market.

Rapid technological advancements, globalization, and economic uncertainties have created complex challenges for most businesses. Critical thinking skills are essential to successfully navigating this complexity and uncertainty. Critical thinkers can examine challenges and opportunities three-dimensionally in the broader business context, and they can analyze relevant information to develop a plan of action to address it. Critical thinking enables employees to consider multiple perspectives and potential outcomes of different decisions, leading to better choices that are more likely to succeed.

The ability to evaluate information, data, and facts is important in making informed decisions. Employees who lack basic critical thinking skills may be prone to making decisions based on assumptions, biases, or incomplete information. That often leads to poor decisions. On the other hand, employees who possess critical thinking skills are better equipped to weigh options, analyze the pros and cons of each decision, and make decisions based on factual and reliable information. Such decisions can lead to better outcomes for the organization, resulting in improved productivity, increased revenue, and better customer satisfaction.

In addition to decision making, critical thinking is also essential to problem solving – a key capability for leaders every level.

In the workplace, issues can arise at any time, and managers must be able to identify, analyze and address these problems quickly and efficiently. Critical thinking skills can help leaders identify the root cause of the problem and evaluate different options to solve it. This process can lead to innovative and effective solutions to complex problems that may have otherwise been overlooked or dismissed.

Finally, critical thinking is vital for effective communication in the workplace.

Employees who can analyze and evaluate information can communicate it effectively to their colleagues and superiors. Critical thinking skills enable employees to articulate their ideas, share their opinions, and offer constructive feedback, leading to improved collaboration and team productivity. Employees who lack critical thinking skills may struggle to communicate their thoughts effectively, leading to misunderstandings, miscommunication, and conflicts.

Businesses of every size must prioritize the development of these skills among their employees to enable them to make informed decisions, solve complex problems, and communicate effectively.

The cultivation of critical thinking skills in the workplace requires investment in training and development programs that equip employees with the necessary tools and techniques to analyze and evaluate information effectively. But the result will be a more efficient, innovative, and productive workforce that can navigate complex challenges and drive success for the organization.

Wed, 22 Feb 2023 11:41:00 -0600 Bryce Hoffman en text/html
Design Thinking Series

Are you having a tough, energy-draining challenge in the classroom that will require you to take a new and innovative approach to solve? Bring your challenges to us and we’ll help! In this 90 minute design sprint, participants will work in teams of two to find better ways to tackle a challenging problem that each person faces in the classroom. The exercise will cover every step of the design process: empathy, define, ideate, prototype and test. By the end of the workshop, not only will participants have discovered a new and innovative way to tackle a classroom challenge, but they will be able to apply this method to tackle any range of challenges in the future.

Thu, 01 Feb 2018 18:35:00 -0600 en-US text/html
Three Tips For Successfully Integrating Business Simulations Into Strategic Thinking Training

Thought leader in Business Simulations, Strategy Execution, and President of Simulation Studios where he advises top companies globally.

Strategic thinking training has become an important component of today’s corporate leadership development training program, but rapidly developing strategic thinking capability within the workforce can be exceptionally challenging. Why? Because strategic thinking capabilities are traditionally built up through many years of hands-on business experience. Creating a strategic thinking training program in short order can bear disappointing results. This is where utilizing a business simulation can greatly enhance learning.

In full disclosure, I run Simulation Studios, which develops business training simulations. These simulations are most often used within corporate leadership development programs, which include strategic thinking training. I've seen firsthand how business training simulations can be a great learning reinforcement tool, but they don’t always fit and can sometimes actually act as a distraction. To be a helpful tool for teaching strategic thinking, they must be used correctly.

The Need For Strategic Thinking Training

Today’s organizations need to change and execute strategy faster than ever, and yet many organizations are facing a loss of institutional knowledge brought on by an acceleration in retirement rates. Development Dimensions International's 2021 Global Leadership Forecast paints a challenging picture for corporate leadership with only 11% of surveyed organizations reporting they have a “strong” or “very strong” leadership bench—the lowest number in the past decade. This is putting pressure on HR to backfill with talent. Strategic thinking training should include exposure to effective leadership norms and the impact leadership has on attrition and strategy execution.

Strategic thinking training can also Strengthen employee engagement and retention. According to a 2022 Gallup poll, employee engagement dropped for the first time in over a decade. The study found that only 34% of employees were engaged and a whopping 16% were actively disengaged. Strategic thinking training is a great way to bring employees into the business—and help them to understand how their role contributes to the organization—while building valuable skills.

The problem is that teaching and learning strategic thinking is tough. I've written previously about how strategic thinking training is exceptionally challenging because, at a minimum, it requires effective leadership, financial acumen, cross-functional collaboration and teamwork, innovative thinking and design thinking to solve problems and for business agility and resilience.

How A Business Simulation Can Help

In most cases, a business simulation is a tool used within corporate training programs. It can be paper-based but most are digital and accompanied by in-person facilitation to Strengthen the learning experience. For strategic thinking training, I find a business simulation is most effective when combining strategic goals with training goals.

Here are some tips to more effectively use a business simulation within your strategic training program:

1. Think small.

To start, the business simulation should be a small portion of your budget and strategic thinking training time. You can expand into something larger after you’ve experienced what works and doesn’t work. Remember that small means focused. In my years of experience, I have yet to see a real need for a large business simulation.

2. Practice extreme focus.

Thinking small and practicing extreme focus go together. It is critical to write out the goals and objectives of your strategic thinking training program. The business simulation should closely align with the learning objectives. If you can do this effectively, the results will be a tight and focused integration between your strategic thinking training goals and what the participants practice within the business simulation.

3. Try before you buy.

Business simulations can get expensive (another reason to stay small and focused). There is a good chance you’re able to build a solution internally. Some of the best business simulations I’ve seen are paper-based solutions. If you start by trying to build your own only to learn you need an outside provider, you’ll be set up well to work closely with a provider you are comfortable with and trust. Hint: Always work with a firm/person you trust and are comfortable working with.

Final Thoughts

Strategic thinking training is an exciting, intense and important skill to develop for today’s workforce. That being said, it is tough to learn, tough to retain and challenging to deliver. This shouldn’t stop you from building a great strategic thinking training program. I think you’ll find using a business simulation can drastically increase applicability and knowledge retention. Consider building your own before running out and buying. Just keep it small and focused and take it one step at a time.

Forbes Coaches Council is an invitation-only community for leading business and career coaches. Do I qualify?

Wed, 17 Aug 2022 00:00:00 -0500 Bill Hall en text/html
Netflix’s Head of Animated Series on the Streamer’s Strategy to “Win the Living Room” in 2023 and Beyond No result found, try new keyword!John Derderian spoke to The Hollywood Reporter about Netflix's larger TV animation and anime strategy, the future of interactive and gaming tie-ins, and the potential of the streamer's IP acquisitions ... Sat, 30 Dec 2023 09:30:00 -0600 en-us text/html The best Android phones in 2024

Best overall

Samsung Galaxy S23 Plus (256GB)

Samsung's Galaxy S23 Plus simply has the least compromises of any Android phone, and it has the best likelihood of pleasing the most people.

Samsung's Galaxy S23 Plus is our top pick because we don't have to spend time talking about compromises like we do on most other Android phones — if you have a necessity in an Android phone, it's more than likely that the Galaxy S23 Plus has it, and it has it in high quality. The only trade-off for such a complete experience is its $1,000 starting price.

The Galaxy S23 Plus' performance goes beyond expectations for high-end Android phones in 2023 by running on a specially optimized processor that's exclusive to the Galaxy S23 series — the Qualcomm Snapdragon 8 Gen 2 Optimized for Galaxy. The gains aren't massive over other Android phones running the standard Snapdragon 8 Gen 2, like the OnePlus 11, but the Galaxy S23 Plus does occasionally open apps a little faster in side-by-side testing.

The rear triple-lens camera on the Galaxy S23 Plus delivers photos anyone would be happy with, and Samsung has also improved the selfie camera year-over-year, with surprisingly good HDR, portrait mode, colors, contrast, and brightness. Battery life on the Galaxy S23 Plus is excellent; among comparably sized Android phones, its 59% result in our intensive battery test was bested only by the Google Pixel 8 Pro, which scored 62%, and the OnePlus 11, which scored 61%. 

The Galaxy S23 Plus has a fairly large screen at 6.6 inches, which may be too large for some people, but its light weight at 6.91 ounces makes it incredibly comfortable in the hand. And, as expected for a high-end Android phone, the Galaxy S23 Plus' display runs at a silky smooth 120Hz, which pairs beautifully with the phone's powerful processor — every swipe and animation on the screen glides effortlessly. 

Read our full Samsung Galaxy S23 Plus review.

Best budget

Google Pixel 7a

Google's Pixel 7a is like a premium phone at a discount with its 90Hz display and flagship Tensor G2 processor.

The Google Pixel 7a is essentially a premium device with high-end performance, features, and camera quality that's dressed in somewhat less-premium materials. In return for the slightly diminished aesthetic of thick display borders and a plastic back, the Pixel 7a costs $499.

The Pixel 7a's MSRP is on the high side for a budget pick, especially compared to the $349 Pixel 6a. But unlike the Pixel 6a, the Pixel 7a comes with several premium features, like a latest flagship processor (Google's Tensor G2), wireless charging, a smoother high refresh-rate display, and the option of fast mmWave 5G connectivity — all of which combine to justify the price gap between the Pixel 7a and the Pixel 6a and make the newer model the top pick in our best budget Android phone guide. 

In our intensive battery test, the 6.1-inch Pixel 7a's 60% result is astonishingly good for a phone of this size — it matches and outperforms some premium phones with bigger screens, like the 6.6-inch Galaxy S23 Plus (59%) and 6.8-inch Galaxy S23 Ultra (54%).

While the Pixel 7a's 64MP main camera and 13MP ultrawide camera are ostensibly a significant upgrade from the Pixel 6a's 12MP cameras, in our testing, we found little discernible difference between the excellent photos the two budget phones produce. There's also little difference in camera quality between the Pixel 7a and some high-end devices, many of which cost twice as much. 

Read our full Google Pixel 7a review.

Best camera

Samsung Galaxy S23 Ultra (256GB)

Samsung's Galaxy S23 Ultra has four camera lenses that take excellent photos, and it offers the most versatility with its unique 10x zoom lens.

Samsung's Galaxy S23 Ultra is the ultimate camera phone with its four lenses, including a 200-megapixel (MP) main camera, a 12MP ultrawide, a 10MP 3x zoom, and a 10MP 10x zoom.

Despite the very high-resolution main camera, you might not notice much of a difference in photo quality compared to other premium phones with around 50MP cameras — most high-end devices achieve a similarly good balance of color, brightness, contrast, and sharpness. 

What sets the Galaxy S23 Ultra apart from the other best Samsung phones, and from any other phone for that matter, is its fourth 10x optical zoom lens. It takes crisp, clear photos and videos in full detail significantly further than any other phone, making it the most versatile camera phone you can buy in the US.

The Galaxy S23 Ultra comes with a built-in stylus, the S Pen, which comes in handy for editing photos on the phone's giant 6.8-inch screen — it offers precision and functionality that simply can't be achieved with a fingertip. 

Read our full Samsung Galaxy S23 Ultra review.

Best battery life

Google Pixel 8 Pro

The Pixel 8 Pro has top-end specs and features, much like other premium Android phones. It sets itself apart with Google’s Pixel-exclusive smart AI features, which can do amazing things for your photos, or even pick up the phone for you to check who’s calling.

Phones with bigger displays almost always have the best battery life, and the Google Pixel 8 Pro with a 6.7-inch display obtained the best result in our battery stress test among Android phones, ending the test with 62% remaining. 

The battery stress test is designed to simulate a blend of lighter and heavier workloads. It includes five runs of the Geekbench 6 app, two runs of the intensive 20-minute 3DMark Wild Life Stress Test, two hours of video streaming, and one hour of music streaming while connected to a Bluetooth speaker.

The Pixel 8 Pro's 62% is a great result, but it's not far ahead of other Android phones with similar screen sizes. The Galaxy S23 Plus (6.6 inches) ended the test with 59% remaining, and the OnePlus 11 (6.7 inches) with 61%. Surprisingly, the Galaxy S23 Ultra with a 6.8-inch display did remarkably poorly with 54% remaining at the end of our test. 

At the end of the day, the Pixel 8 Pro's result doesn't mean it'll last significantly longer than the Galaxy S23 Plus or the OnePlus 11 — you'll still need to charge the Pixel 8 Pro whenever you usually charge your phones. That's to say, if you're not a Google Pixel fan, you can pick either the Galaxy S23 Plus or OnePlus 11 and be just as happy with battery life. Choice is one of the best things about the Android ecosystem.  

Best small phone

The Android phone market is flooded with large screens, and you'd think fans of smaller phones are underserved, but not when the 6.1-inch Samsung Galaxy S23 is around. 

One of the best Samsung phones you can buy, the Galaxy S23 is essentially a smaller version of our pick for the best overall Android phone, the 6.6-inch Galaxy S23 Plus — it offers the same high-end performance, the same cameras, and the same design. 

Its battery life isn't quite as good as the Galaxy S23 Plus (47% vs. 59%), but that's understandable and expected in smaller phones. The only baffling compromise is its 25W charging speed compared to the Galaxy S23 Plus' 45W charging speed, and it also has a lower base storage option at 128GB. 

At its starting price of $800, the Galaxy S23 is still on the expensive side, so we alternately recommend the Google Pixel 7a, which also has a 6.1-inch screen and currently starts at $499. 

Read our full Samsung Galaxy S23 review.

Best foldable phone

Google Pixel Fold

Google's Pixel Fold is patently the best foldable Android phone we've tested thanks to the usefulness of its exterior display.

The Google Pixel Fold, Google's first entry into the foldable phone market, immediately stood out on its release as the premier offering in the realm of Android foldable devices for one key reason: Its folded, exterior display offered a closer approximation to a traditional phone experience than any previous foldable phone. 

We find the exterior screens on Samsung's Galaxy Z Fold series awkwardly narrow to the point of providing a sub-par experience as a phone, while the Pixel Fold's 5.8-inch exterior display is wider and more functional when using apps. (The latest entry in the foldable realm, the OnePlus Open, has an exterior display that improves on both the Z Fold phones and the Pixel Fold by striking a middle ground between the narrowness of the former and the width of the latter, but we're still in the process of testing it fully.) 

The Pixel Fold's exterior and interior screens operate at a smooth 120Hz, and the phone runs on Google's proficient Tensor G2 processor, which we've found to be essentially on par in everyday use with the Qualcomm Snapdragon 8 Gen 2 processor that runs Samsung's Galaxy Z Fold 5, despite the latter processor's superior benchmark performance.  

If you're looking for a new phone that can double as a tablet, the Pixel Fold is more than worth your while if its $1,799 starting price tag is within your budget. 

Read our full Google Pixel Fold review.

Best Android phones compared

How we test Android phones

Every phone is put through the same tests, including several days of personal use.
Antonio Villas-Boas/Business Insider

We test Android phones as if they were our daily drivers for at least several days, and often much longer. That way, we can get the best anecdotal feel for their performance, battery life, cameras, and new features.

We also conduct standard tests on all the phones we review and include in our guides.

For performance, we put the phones through a gamut of benchmarking apps to check for performance discrepancies between phones, at least on paper. These benchmark tests also help us evaluate how many years a phone could maintain its performance compared to other phones. We've used Geekbench 6 for general performance, and the 3DMark Wild Life Stress Test to get a sense of extended heavy gaming performance. 

For camera testing, we photograph a set gamut of scenes with every phone; you may have seen our barn photos over and over again. We take photos with each lens on each phone and compare them to their direct competitors. We even compare premium phone cameras to budget options to evaluate the difference. 

For battery life, we run each phone through a stress test that simulates a mixture of typical daily workloads, like streaming a video and music, as well as high-intensity workloads, like playing demanding games. The battery stress test includes five runs of the Geekbench 6 app, two runs of the 3DMark Wildlife Stress Test, two hours of video streaming at a set average brightness, and one hour of music streaming with Bluetooth headphones connected. At the end of the test, we note the remaining battery percentage on the phone.

Best Android phone FAQs

Who owns Android? 

In simple terms, Google owns the Android operating system. Other companies like Samsung and OnePlus can run Android on their phones because Google makes it freely available as an open-source operating system for anyone to use on their phones. Even you, the reader, could build your own phone that legally runs the Android operating system.  

The Android operating system looks and works differently on phones from different companies because phone makers modify the operating system by adding their own layers of software on top of Android for users to interact with.

For example, while Samsung phones run the core Android operating system that gives them access to the Google Play Store apps, they also run Samsung's user interface (UI) layer called One UI, which adds a distinctive look and feel to the company's phones. 

Which Android phone gets the most updates?

The best support window for Android phones currently is the seven years of Android operating system and security updates offered by the new Google Pixel 8 phones.

Samsung's current flagship phones offer a shorter support window; the company has said that its Galaxy S23 series phones will get four years of Android software updates and five years of security updates following their February 2023 release. 

Relative to the Pixel 8 phones, Google offers a smaller support window for two of the earlier phones we've included here, the Pixel 7a and Pixel Fold, both of which will get three years of Android updates and five years of security updates from their respective release dates. 

Tue, 02 Jan 2024 09:59:00 -0600 en-US text/html
The Traitors reveals series 2 contestants

The Traitors reveals series 2 contestantsBBC

It's almost time for the new season of the nail-biting reality series The Traitors, with 22 new players heading to the Scottish Highlands for the ultimate game of backstabbing and deception.

Premiering tomorrow (January 3), the series will see the group split into Traitors and Faithfuls – with the Faithfuls working to detect the Traitors amongst their ranks, banish them and secure a chance at winning the prize money, while the Traitors work to murder the Faithfuls and steal the cash.

With £120,000 up for grabs, let's meet the new contestants hoping to avoid murder/detection and make it to the end...


Mark Mainz - BBC

First up is Andrew, a 45-year-old insurance broker from Talbot Green.

After suffering a serious accident 23 years ago which saw him pronounced dead, Andrew felt inspired to sign up for the series as he wants to "step out" of his comfort zone and encourage others to take opportunities in life.

"I'd like to inspire thousands of people out there who've maybe had a traumatic experience or suffered with their mental health," he said. "I want to inspire people and supply them hope."


Mark Mainz - BBC

Anthony, 45, is a chess coach from Birmingham.

He is hoping his chess skills will help him go far in the competition, and said that The Traitors is essentially a "live game of chess," and he's willing to go "all the way" as a Traitor.


Mark Mainz - BBC

Ash, 45, is an event co-ordinator from London.

A huge fan of season one, Ash reckons her best bet to make it to the final will be as a Traitor. "The best chance I have to win this game is to be a Traitor," she said. "It's a game and I'm playing to win."


Mark Mainz - BBC

Aubrey, 67, is a retired shop owner from Loughborough.

Aubrey said his game plan is to "befriend everyone" in order to stay in the game, adding that he believes getting on with the other contestants will be crucial at the Round Table.


Mark Mainz - BBC

Brian, 33, is a photographer from Glasgow.

Hoping to finally test himself after watching competition shows and thinking, "I could do that," Brian is hoping to bring light-heartedness to any "crazy" situations while also taking notes on his fellow contestants' strategies.

"At night I'll be a crazy man scribbling but during the day I'll just take everything as it comes," he said.


Mark Mainz - BBC

Charlie, 34, is a mental health area manager from Bristol.

Admitting that she would "struggle" to be a Traitor, Charlie applied for the series after binge-watching season one "back-to-back-to-back."


Mark Mainz - BBC

Charlotte, 32, is a recruitment manager from Warwickshire.

Ideally, Charlotte would like to be a Traitor but if not, she'd like to catch one out. A seasoned poker player, she is planning to allow herself to be "underestimated" as she believes underestimated contestants always do best.

"We all love an underdog, don't we?" she added.


Mark Mainz - BBC

Diane, 63, is a retired teacher from Lancashire.

After being told by her children that she could never "do something like this," Diane plucked up the courage to apply after watching just one and a half episodes.

She has since caught up on the series and plans to use her skills as a teacher for a pupil referral unit to make it to the end.


Mark Mainz - BBC

Evie, 29, is a veterinary nurse from Inverness.

As the final task on her "30 before 30" list, Evie signed up for The Traitors after having an "existential crisis" about her upcoming birthday, adding that she'd use the prize money to take care of rescued animals.


Mark Mainz - BBC

Originating from Slough, Harry is a 22-year-old British Army engineer.

An admirer of season one contestant Wilfred, Harry would be "110%" happy as a Traitor, saying he would buy his fellow contestants "a couple of drinks" should he win the series.


Mark Mainz - BBC

Jasmine, 26, is a sales executive from London.

Calling herself a "professional truth embezzler", Jasmine believes her sales skills are suited to going far on the series. "I'm very personable, and people tend to want to befriend me a lot, which is how you get people on side," she said.

"It's a game of making allies, isn't it?"


Mark Mainz - BBC

Manchester-based Jaz is a 30-year-old national account manager.

Planning to bring "pure energy" to the series, Jaz doesn't intend to lean heavily on a game plan, saying that nothing (apart from his marriage and wedding day) has meant more to him than being a contestant on the show.


Mark Mainz - BBC

Ex-military man Jonny is 31 and from Bedfordshire.

After originally watching the Dutch version of the show, Jonny said the series surpassed his expectations. Not one for game plans, Jonny intends to "make it up as I go along" and noted the importance of being authentic in order to win over his contestants.


Mark Mainz - BBC

Kyra, 21, is an apprentice economist from Kent.

Motivated by the hope of helping her sister with wedding expenses, Kyra believes her active lifestyle and experience playing video game Among Us will help her tackle the challenges of The Traitors.


Mark Mainz - BBC

Meg, 22, is an illustrator from Herefordshire.

Preferring to be a Faithful instead of a Traitor, Meg is planning to just "wing it" once she gets there, saying that "nothing can prepare you for what they're going to throw at you."


Mark Mainz - BBC

Miles is a 36-year-old veterinary nurse currently residing in Birmingham.

He believes he'll bring plenty of "humour" to the competition as he always aims to "respectfully" see the funny side of things.

"Humour's probably the first thing that I bring forward because that's my norm," he said. "I'm happy to laugh at myself...and others."


Mark Mainz - BBC

Mollie, 21, is a disability model from Bristol.

Admiring both the teamwork and "sneakiness" from season one, Mollie is looking forward to taking part in the missions as well as aiming to make as many friends as possible. "The more friends you have in there, the better," she said.


Mark Mainz - BBC

Paul, 36, is a business manager from Manchester.

A fan of riddles, board games and doing escape rooms, Paul believes he will shine in the missions, hoping that winning the team plenty of money will keep him on the show longer.

He would also love to be a Traitor, saying: "To participate in the show fully is to be a Traitor."


Mark Mainz

Ross, 28, is from Lancashire and works as a video director.

Not afraid of throwing other contestants under the bus "if needs be," Ross plans to befriend his fellow contestants but is cautious of being "too nice" as a Faithful he believes the other contestants will see him as a threat.

"You have to almost play the silent game," he added.


Mark Mainz

Sonja, 66, is a volunteer business mentor from Lancashire.

An avid knitter, Sonja hopes to combine her passion for knitting with thinking in order to make it to the final. A former international vice president for a big global company, she is also comfortable in high-stakes environments.

Sonja also cared for her late son Dan, who was diagnosed with autism and was non-verbal, learning how to read body language and cues. She said that advocating for better care for people who can't "speak up for themselves" is a huge motivation for her to take part.


Mark Mainz

Tracey, 58, is a sonographer and clairvoyant from Inverness.

A former member of the Air Force, Tracey is excited to take part in the missions as they combine her former career with her interest in doing crosswords, playing board games and doing treasure trails.

Calling herself a "strong extrovert" Tracey believes she is good at lying as she can get away with it due to her "happy-go-lucky personality."


Mark Mainz

Zack, 27, is a parliamentary affairs advisor from London.

Calling himself a "loud mouth" Zack believes he is better suited to being a Faithful as he would struggle to keep secrets as a Traitor.

Adding that he applied for the show to see if he's as "as smart as I think I am," Zack hopes to use his experience working in Parliament to get information out of his fellow contestants.

The Traitors season 1 and the US version are available to stream on BBC iPlayer now. Season 2 of the UK version will air on January 3, 2024.

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Mon, 01 Jan 2024 17:01:00 -0600 en-US text/html
Delta in final tests to replace plastic cups with paper on flights No result found, try new keyword!Delta Air Lines Inc. (NYSE: DAL) has begun final testing to replace the plastic cups it's used for decades for in-flight drinks with a more environmentally friendly paper version. The Atlanta ... Tue, 26 Dec 2023 10:00:00 -0600 text/html ‘This is my World Cup,’ says Elgar ahead of farewell Test against India

The opening batter will walk away from Test cricket after the match, having played 86 Tests for his country.

“It doesn’t get bigger and better than this … a New Year’s Test at Newlands.”

That’s how Proteas captain Dean Elgar described the challenge facing his team ahead of the second Test against India which gets underway in Cape Town on Wednesday.

The Proteas go into the game with a 1-0 lead in the two-match series having won the first Test by more than an innings in Centurion last week.

The match at Newlands will also be Elgar’s last, the opening batter having announced his retirement from Test cricket before the series started late last year.

Elgar said there was a job to do, to secure a series win, before he could start thinking about his retirement.

‘Highlight of the year’

“It’s business as usual,” said the 36-year-old who’ll play in his 86th Test this week.

“I think the emotions will only set in after the game. This is a massive test for us, our highlight of the year … a New Year’s Test at Newlands. It doesn’t get bigger or better.”

Elgar, who scored a scintillating 185 in the first Test at Centurion added: “We must throw the first punch.

“It is a big occasion for all of us, we’re in a good position knowing we can’t lose the series, but we’re not thinking of a draw. We’ve got a chance to win it. I’m not concerned about my own records, though I want to always contribute, but for me it’s only about winning Test matches and series and that is again the goal.

“We knew coming into the series, with it being only two matches, we couldn’t afford to make a slow start, something we’ve been knowing to do in the past, and we didn’t.

“We almost played the perfect Test at Centurion, bar the slip catching, and now coming to Newlands, we’re very mindful of the opportunity ahead of us.”


Elgar said he felt pride in being asked to captain the side in his farewell Test.

“There’s no bigger accolade in sport than to be asked to captain the (national) side,” said the opener.

“It’s probably been the best learning experience for me, not just in a cricketing sense, but off the field as well. I’d like to think I’ve always given 100 percent and showed the youngsters the right way. There’s been no bigger honour for me. And this Test against India, and the opportunity to win the series, is my World Cup.”

Elgar said a typical Newlands wicket awaited the players: “I played a few domestic games here this season, and it was quite juicy, but it looks like a good cricket wicket.

“Newlands has always been a place where if you apply yourself with the bat you’ll do well, and if you put the ball in the right areas, with the right intensity, you’ll do well with the ball.” ends

Mon, 01 Jan 2024 23:33:00 -0600 en text/html
Australia-India series strengthens call to retain 5-day Tests


4-day Tests or 5-day Tests?

4-day Tests or 5-day Tests? © Getty

The Australia-India series may or may not rekindle the diminishing interest in India for Test cricket but it may have done the five-day game itself a great favour. If nothing else, the fiercely-fought Test series will have put the idea of four-day Tests in the back-burner, for the time being at least.

One need not go beyond the comment of Anil Kumble, after India's heart-pounding win at the Gabba on Tuesday, to realise this. The former India skipper posted: "Many congratulations Team India for the fabulous show of character and skill. A wonderful test series with the perfect result. Hopefully the end of discussion of 4-day Tests for a while (sic)."

On the face of it, the comment may innocuously appear celebratory and congratulatory in nature. But when one factors in the reality that it comes from the chairman of Cricket Committee of International Cricket Council (ICC), the Twitter post becomes a loaded declaration on Test cricket's future, even if it's a personal opinion.

Kumble, after all, is the chief policy-maker of world cricket and he was making his stand public on the idea of four-day Tests for the first time ever. Kumble's view was endorsed by Cricket Australia (CA) too. "It (the four-day Tests) is not in our radar and I think this series showed the value of the five-day format. They will speak about this tour in a hundred years. It was an amazing win by a great team," CA chief Earl Eddings told Cricbuzz. The CA was previously backing the four-day idea.

Around this time last year, there was a raging debate on the duration of Tests and the cricket world was vertically divided on cutting down the length of a format that is more than 140 years old. Former cricketers like Mark Taylor, Michael Vaughan and Shane Warne were in favour of this and closer home, their position was backed by Sanjay Manjrekar.

Virat Kohli and Sachin Tendulkar though were against it. "Taking Day Five away from spinners is akin to denying Day One to the fast bowlers," Tendulkar had said. Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC), which makes the laws of the game, was against it too.

"MCC has noted the latest discussion regarding the future of Test cricket and the ICC's desire to debate the introduction of four-day Test cricket to replace the current five-day format in the World Test Championships from 2023. The MCC Cricket committee and MCC World Cricket committee have recently discussed the issue and although they can see some benefits that four-day Test cricket could bring, both committees believe that Test cricket should continue to be played over five days," the London club had said in a statement in January last year. One year on, the idea seems to have come full circle.

The ICC had, actually, approved the four-day Test in October 2017 after a recommendation, interestingly, from the Kumble-led committee (not a unanimous decision, presumably) itself. A couple of official four-day Day/Night Tests were also played -- between South Africa and Zimbabwe in Port Elizabeth in 2017-18. Ireland's Lord's Test in 2019 was also an official four-day affair.

The whole idea stemmed from the thinking that the four-day Test would help smaller nations play more Test cricket against stronger opponents. It also makes sense from a calendar point of view. By tinkering the format, more games can be squeezed in.

But one ICC member confided to Cricbuzz that the world body is sensitive to the fact that the connoisseurs would be against it. "We're sure there will be a discussion soon on retaining the original format of Tests going forward. There could be a conversation towards this for the WTC post 2023 cycle. We don't underestimate the strength of the feeling of retaining five days among players, past and present. We are conscious of the fact that it's not welcome by the majority of cricketers," the ICC member said.

The dwindling interest in Tests started about 10 years ago and it coincided with the rising popularity of Twenty20 cricket. If an IPL or T20 international game clocks 4 in the TRP (viewership on TV) meter, the Test viewership would be 0.4. Obviously, those numbers do not make great business sense but purists would contend that the charm of five-day matches makes greater cricketing sense.

Coming to the present, the playing conditions of the on-going World Test Championship (WTC) say that all matches have to be of five-day duration. The current cycle of the WTC ends in June this year with India, presently heading the championship table, having a serious chance of reaching the final. The final will be held in England and the ICC is expected to come out with details on dates and venue over the next few weeks.

© Cricbuzz


Tue, 19 Jan 2021 13:26:00 -0600 en text/html
A three-Test series for women? Major push for Aussie women's team to play more red-ball cricket

There are promising signs for more women’s Test cricket in the near future, with Cricket Australia boss Nick Hockley revealing himself to be a “strong advocate.”

Test cricket has proven an absolute rarity in the women’s game, with Australia only playing England and India since 1996.

As Gerard Whateley says, the lack of Test cricket “feels like it’s been a disconnect between the administrators of cricket around the world and the teams themselves who would dearly love a bit more of it.”

It comes after a sole Test against India as part of a multi-format series between the two nations, with India prevailing by eight wickets on home soil.

Captain Alyssa Healy spoke post-match about wanting to play more red-ball cricket.

“Imagine playing two more of these? I think that would be an unbelievable experience for our group and probably a true test of both sides' abilities,” she told reporters.

“I think the one-off Test match, India playing in their home conditions, you'd expect them to be heavy favourites and the way that I think we tried to adapt and continued to learn throughout the four days was really impressive.”

At the very least, Healy has a supporter in Hockley, who even threw up the proposition of a three-Test series for the women’s game.

“I’ve been a strong advocate for multi-format series, I’m delighted now that we’ve got three in quick succession with South Africa later in the season… then obviously the return Ashes next Australian summer,” he told SEN Test Cricket prior to play on Day 2 of the Boxing Day Test.


“So absolutely (I'm) an advocate for playing more Test cricket, I feel that as part of a multi-format series it gives great context to that.

“It was great watching the Test match in India, a real contest, you could see how it tested both sides. Compelling, compelling viewing and I think some of Alyssa’s comments, as they got into the match they got more into every session and they’re probably thinking there’s more unfinished business.

“We’ll keep advocating for more Test cricket as part of multi-format and maybe that’s something in the future we can think about a key marquee series going to three Tests… I think Test match is the pinnacle.”

India’s win over Australia last week was its first in the format against Australia in its first home Test against the Aussies in almost 40 years.

Test cricket for women has traditionally featured as part of a multi-format series including ODIs and T20Is, although India’s win was separate from the rest of the tour.

There are three ODIs and three T20s to be played against Pakistan before a Test against South Africa in mid-February at the WACA.

Tue, 26 Dec 2023 16:34:00 -0600 en text/html

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