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Exam Code: HPE6-A85 Aruba Certified Associate - Campus Access (ACA) test January 2024 by Killexams.com team
Aruba Certified Associate - Campus Access (ACA)
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Question: 164
What is the correct command to add a static route to a class-c-network via a gateway of
A. ip-route
B. ip route description aruba
C. ip route
D. ip route-static 10.2
Answer: A
The correct command to add a static route to a class-c-network via a gateway of is ip-route This command specifies the destination network address ( and prefix length (/24)
and the next-hop address (172.16.1 .1) for reaching that network from the switch. The other commands are either
incorrect syntax or incorrect parameters for adding a static route.
References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX_10_04/NOSCG/Content/cx-noscg/ip-routing/sta
Question: 165
When would you bond multiple 20MHz wide 802.11 channels?
A. To decrease the Signal to Noise Ratio (SNR)
B. To increase throughput between the client and AP
C. To provision highly available AP groups
D. To utilize high gain omni-directional antennas
Answer: B
Bonding multiple 20MHz wide 802.11 channels is a technique to create a wider bandwidth channel that supports
higher data rate transmissions. It can increase the throughput between the client and AP by using more spectrum
resources and reducing interference.
References: https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/document/9288995
Question: 166
What is indicated by a solid amber radio status LED on an Aruba AP?
A. Not enough PoE is provided from the switch to power both radios of the AP
B. The radio is working in mesh mode
C. The radio is working the 5 GHz band only.
D. The radio is enabled in monitor or spectrum analysis mode
Answer: A
On an Aruba AP, a solid amber radio status LED indicates: A. Not enough PoE is provided from the switch to power
both radios of the AP
When the radio status LED on an Aruba AP shows a solid amber color, it typically signifies that the PoE (Power over
Ethernet) supplied by the switch is insufficient to power both radios of the AP (usually the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands).
This may require checking the PoE budget of the switch or using a higher-powered PoE source.
Other options, such as the radio working in mesh mode, operating only in the 5 GHz band, or being enabled in monitor
or spectrum analysis mode, typically do not result in the LED showing a solid amber color.
Question: 167
What does WPA3-Personal use as the source to generate a different Pairwise Master Key (PMK) each time a station
connects to the wireless network?
A. Session-specific information (MACs and nonces)
B. Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE)
C. Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE)
D. Key Encryption Key (KEK)
Answer: C
Question: 168
Which flew in a Layer 3 IPv4 packet header is used to mitigate Layer 3 route loops?
A. Checksum
B. Time To Live
C. Protocol
D. Destination IP
Answer: B
The field in a Layer 3 IPv4 packet header that is used to mitigate Layer 3 route loops is Time To Live (TTL). TTL is
an 8-bit field that indicates the maximum number of hops that a packet can traverse before being discarded. TTL is set
by the source device and decremented by one by each router that forwards the packet. If TTL reaches zero, the packet
is dropped and an ICMP Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a
network protocol that provides error reporting and diagnostic functions for IP networks. ICMP is used to send
messages such as echo requests and replies (ping), destination unreachable, time exceeded, parameter problem, source
quench, redirect, etc. ICMP messages are encapsulated in IP datagrams and have a specific format that contains fields
such as type, code, checksum, identifier, sequence number, data, etc. ICMP messages can be Tested by using
commands such as ping,
traceroute, debug ip icmp, etc. message is sent back to the source device. TTL is used to mitigate Layer 3 route loops
because it prevents packets from circulating indefinitely in a looped network topology. TTL also helps to conserve
network resources and avoid congestion caused by looped packets.
The other options are not fields in a Layer 3 IPv4 packet header because:
- Checksum: Checksum is a 16-bit field that is used to verify the integrity of the IP header. Checksum is calculated by
the source device and Tested by the destination device based on the values of all fields in the IP header. Checksum
does not mitigate Layer 3 route loops because it does not limit the number of hops that a packet can traverse.
- Protocol: Protocol is an 8-bit field that indicates the type of payload carried by the IP datagram. Protocol identifies
the upper-layer protocol that uses IP for data transmission, such as TCP Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a connection-oriented transport layer protocol that provides reliable, ordered,
and error-checked delivery of data between applications on different devices. TCP uses a three-way handshake to
establish a connection between two endpoints, and uses sequence numbers, acknowledgments, and windowing to
ensure data delivery and flow control. TCP also uses mechanisms such as retransmission, congestion avoidance, and
fast recovery to handle packet loss and congestion. TCP segments data into smaller units called segments, which are
encapsulated in IP datagrams and have a specific format that contains fields such as source port, destination port,
sequence number, acknowledgment number, header length, flags, window size, checksum, urgent pointer, options, data,
etc. TCP segments can be Tested by using commands such as telnet, ftp, ssh, debug ip tcp transactions, etc ., UDP
User Datagram Protocol (UDP) User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a connectionless transport layer protocol that
Question: 169
A network administrator with existing IAP-315 access points is interested in Aruba Central and needs to know which
license is required for specific features Please match the required license per feature (Matches may be used more than
Answer: B
a) Alerts on config changes via email - Foundation
b) Group-based firmware compliance - Foundation
c) Heat maps of deployed APs - Advanced
d) Live upgrades of an AOS10 cluster - Advanced
According to the Aruba Central Licensing Guide1, the Foundation License provides basic device management features
such as configuration, monitoring, alerts, reports, firmware management, etc. The Advanced License provides
additional features such as AI insights, WLAN services, NetConductor Fabric, heat maps, live upgrades, etc.
Question: 170
A network technician is troubleshooting one new AP at a branch office that will not receive Its configuration from
Aruba Central. The other APs at the branch are working as expected. The output of the 'show ap debug cloud-server
command' shows that the "cloud conflg received" Is FALSE.
After confirming the new AP has internet access, what would you check next?
A. Disable and enable activate to trigger provisioning refresh
B. Verify the AP can ping the device on arubanetworks.com
C. Verify the AP has a license assigned
D. Disable and enable Aruba Central to trigger configuration refresh
Answer: C
If the AP has internet access but does not receive its configuration from Aruba Central, one possible reason is that the
AP does not have a license assigned in Aruba Central. A license is required for each AP to be managed by Aruba
References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/Central/2.5.2-GA/HTML_frameset.htm#GUID-8F0E7E8
Question: 171
A network technician is using Aruba Central to troubleshoot network issues.
Which dashboard can be used to view and acknowledge issues when beginning the troubleshooting process?
A. the Alerts and Events dashboard
B. the Audit Trail dashboard
C. the Reports dashboard
D. the Tools dashboard
Answer: A
The Alerts and Events dashboard displays all types of alerts and events generated for events pertaining to device
provisioning, configuration, and user management. You can use the Config icon to configure alerts and notifications
for different alert categories and severities1. You can also view the alerts and events in the List view and Summary
1 https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/central/latest/content/nms/alerts/configuring-alerts.htm
2 https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/central/latest/content/nms/alerts/viewing-alerts.htm
Question: 172
You need to configure wireless access for several classes of loT devices, some of which operate only with 802 11b.
Each class must have a unique PSK and will require a different security policy applied as a role There will be 15-20
different classes of devices and performance should be optimized
Which option fulfills these requirements?
A. Single SSID with MPSK for each loT class using 5 GHz and 6 GHz bands
B. Single SSID with MPSK for each loT class using 2.4GHz and 5 GHz bands
C. Individual SSIDs with unique PSK for each loT class, using 5GHz and 6 GHz bands
D. Individual SSIDs with unique PSK for each loT class, using 2.4GHZ and 5GHz band
Answer: B
Question: 173
Which commands are used to set a default route to on an Aruba CX switch when ln-band management using
an SVl is being used?
A. iP default-gateway
B. ip route 0 0 0.070 10.4 5.1 vrf mgmt
C. ip route 0.0 0 0/0
D. default-gateway
Answer: C
The command that is used to set a default route to on an Aruba CX switch when in-band management using
an SVI is being used is ip route 0.0 0 0/0 This command specifies the destination network address (0.0 0 0)
and prefix length (/0) and the next-hop address ( for reaching any network that is not directly connected to the
switch. The default route applies to the default VRF Virtual Routing and Forwarding. VRF is a technology that allows
multiple instances of a routing table to co-exist within the same router at the same time. VRFs are typically used to
segment network traffic for security, privacy, or administrative purposes., which is used for in-band management
traffic that goes through an SVI Switch Virtual Interface. SVI is a virtual interface on a switch that allows the switch to
route packets between different VLANs on the same switch or different switches that are connected by a trunk link. An
SVI is associated with a VLAN and has an IP address and subnet mask assigned to it12. References:
1 https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10_08/HTML/ip_route_4100i-6000-6100-6200/Content/Ch
2 https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10_08/HTML/ip_route_4100i-6000-6100-6200/Content/Ch
Question: 174
Which Protocol Data Unit (PDU) represents the data link layer PDU?
A. PDU1 - Signal
B. PDU2 - Frame
C. PDU3 - Packet
D. PDU4 - Segment
Answer: B
A frame is the data link layer PDU that encapsulates the network layer PDU (packet) with a header and a trailer that
contain information such as source and destination MAC addresses, frame type, error detection, etc. A frame is
transmitted over a physical medium such asEthernet, Wi-Fi, etc.
References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_86_Web_Help/Content/arubaos-solutions/1-ov
Question: 175
When using Aruba Central what can identify recommended steps to resolve network health issues and allows you to
share detailed information with support personnel?
A. Overview Dashboard
B. OAlOps
C. Alerts and Events
D. Audit Trail
Answer: B
OAlOps is a feature of Aruba Central that uses artificial intelligence and machine learning to identify recommended
steps to resolve network health issues and allows you to share detailed information with support personnel. OAlOps
provides insights into network performance, root cause analysis, anomaly detection, proactive alerts, and automated
remediation actions. OAlOps also integrates with Aruba User Experience Insight (UXI) sensors to measure and
improve user experience across wired and wireless networks.
References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/ds/DS_ArubaCentral.pdf
Question: 176
You need to troubleshoot an Aruba CX 6200 4-node VSF stack switch that fails to boot correctly Select the option that
allows you to access the switch and see the boot options available for OS images and ServiceOS.
A. Member 2 RJ-45 console port
B. Member 2 switch mgmt port
C. Conductor USB-C console port
D. Conductor mgmt port using SSH
Answer: A
Question: 177
A hospital uses a lot of mobile equipment for the diagnosis and documentation of patient data.
What Is the ideal access switch for this large hospital with distribution racks of over 400 ports in a single VSF stack?
A. CX 6300
B. OCX 6400
C. OCX 6200
D. OCX 6100
Answer: A
The ideal access switch for a large hospital with distribution racks of over 400 ports in a single VSF stack is the CX
This switch provides the following benefits:
- The CX 6300 supports up to 48 ports per switch and up to 10 switches per VSF stack, allowing for a total of 480
ports in a single stack. This meets the requirement of having over 400 ports in a single VSF stack.
- The CX 6300 supports high-performance switching with up to 960 Gbps of switching capacity and up to 714 Mpps
of forwarding rate. This meets the requirement of having high throughput and low latency for mobile equipment and
patient data.
- The CX 6300 supports advanced features such as dynamic segmentation, policy-based routing, and role-based access
control. These features enhance the security and flexibility of the network by applying different policies and roles to
different types of devices and users.
- The CX 6300 supports Aruba NetEdit, a network configuration and orchestration tool that simplifies the management
and automation of the network. This reduces the complexity and human errors involved in network configuration and
The other options are not ideal because:
- OCX 6400: This switch is designed for data center applications and does not support VSF stacking. It also does not
support dynamic segmentation or policy-based routing, which are useful for network security and flexibility.
- OCX 6200: This switch is designed for small to medium-sized businesses and does not support VSF stacking. It also
has lower switching capacity and forwarding rate than the CX 6300, which may affect the performance of the network.
- OCX 6100: This switch is designed for edge applications and does not support VSF stacking. It also has lower
switching capacity and forwarding rate than the CX 6300, which may affect the performance of the network.
Question: 178
Which device configuration group types can a user define in Aruba Central during group creation? (Select two.)
A. Security group
B. Template group
C. Default group
D. Ul group
E. ESP group
Answer: B,C
Aruba Central allows you to create device configuration groups that define common settings for devices within each
group. You can create different types of groups depending on your network requirements and management
Two types of groups that you can define in Aruba Central during group creation are:
- Template group: A template group allows you to create configuration templates using variables and expressions that
can be applied to multiple devices or device groups. Template groups provide flexibility and scalability for managing
large-scale deployments with similar configurations.
- Default group: A default group is automatically created when you add devices to Aruba Central for the first time. The
default group contains basic configuration settings that are applied to all devices that are not assigned to any other
group. You can modify or delete the default group as needed.
Question: 179
What can be done to dynamically set the PoE Priority on a switch port when deploying IP cameras APs. and other PoE
A. Enable Quick PoE on the switch modules
B. Enable profiling for device provisioning
C. Configure PoE power management to Class-based Mode
D. Configure PoE power management to Dynamic Mode
Answer: C
Question: 180
Please match the use case to the appropriate authentication technology
Answer: C
Based on the information provided, here are the matches for the use case to the appropriate authentication technology:
ClearPass Policy Manager:
Authenticate users on corporate-owned Chromebook devices using 802.1X and context gathered from the network
devices that they log into.
Validate devices exist in a Mobile Device Management (MDM) database before authenticating BYOD users with
corporate Active Directory using certificates.
Cloud Authentication and Policy:
Add certificates to Android devices with the Aruba Onboard Application in the Google Play store that will be used for
wireless authentication.
Leverage unbound Multi Pre-Shared Keys (MPSK) managed by Aruba Central to the end-users and client devices.
The ClearPass Policy Manager is a comprehensive network access control (NAC) and policy management platform
that can authenticate devices using 802.1X, as well as integrate with MDM systems for device validation. The Cloud
Authentication and Policy is likely referring to cloud-based services such as Aruba Central, which can manage MPSK
and distribute certificates for device authentication.
Question: 181
Make sure the interfaces are all ON.
Which configuration script will achieve the task?
A. Edge1# conf t vlan 20 name Mgmt interface vlan 20 ip address no shut interface lag 1 shut vlan access
20 lacp mode active Int 1/1/51.1/1/52 shut no routing lag 1 interface lag 1 no shut
B. Edgel# conf t vlan 20 name Mgmt interface vlan 20 ip address 10 1.1 10/24 no shut interface 1/1/51.1/1/52 shut vlan
trunk native 20 vlan trunk allowed all lag 1 lacp mode active interface 1/1/51.1/1/52 no shut
C. Edgel# conf t vlan 20 name Mgmt interface vlan 20 ip address 10 1 1 10/24 no shut interface lag 1 shut vlan trunk
native 20 vlan trunk allowed all lacp mode active Int 1/1/51.1/1/52 shut no routing lag 1 interface lag 1 no shut
interface 1/1/51.1/1/52 no shut
D. conf t vlan 20 name Mgmt ip address 10 1 1.10/24 no shut interface lag 1 shut vlan trunk native 1 vlan trunk
allowed all lacp mode active int 1/1/51.1/1/52 shut no routing interface lag 1 no shut interface 1/1/51.1/1/52 no shut
Answer: C
This configuration script will achieve the task as it follows the guidelines given by the Senior Engineer. It creates
VLAN 20 with name Mgmt, adds L3 SVI on VLAN 20 with IP address, creates LAG 1 with LACP mode
active for the uplink, uses VLAN 20 as the native VLAN on the LAG, and ensures that the interfaces are all ON.
References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10.04/HTML/5200-6790/GUID-8F0E7E8B-0F4
Question: 182
Based on the "snow ip route" output on an AruDaCX 8400. what type of route is "10.1 20 0/24, vrf default via [1/0]"?
A. local
B. static
D. connected
Answer: B
A static route is a route that is manually configured on a router or switch and does not change unless it is modified by
an administrator. Static routes are used to specify how traffic should reach specific destinations that are not directly
connected to the device or that are not reachable by dynamic routing protocols. In Aruba CX switches, static routes
can be configured using the ip route command in global configuration mode. Based on the âshow ip routeâ output on
an Aruba CX 8400 switch, the route â10.1 20 0/24, vrf default via, [1/0]â is a static route because it has an
administrative distance of 1 and a metric of 0, which are typical values for static routes.
Question: 183
Which statement is correct when comparing 5 GHz and 6 GHz channels with identical channel widths?
A. 5 GHz channels travel the same distances and provide different throughputs to clients compared to 6 GHz channels
B. 5 GHz channels travel different distances and provide different throughputs to clients compared to 6 GHz channels
C. 5 GHz channels travel the same distances and provide the same throughputs to clients compared to 6 GHz channels
D. 5 GHz channels travel different distances and provide the same throughputs to clients compared to 6 GHz channels
Answer: B

HP Certified test - BingNews https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/HPE6-A85 Search results HP Certified test - BingNews https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/HPE6-A85 https://killexams.com/exam_list/HP HP Unveils New Converged Infrastructure Training And Certification

HP on Wednesday debuted a new training program for channel partners focused on converged infrastructure solutions, and also a range of new network planning and migration services.

The program, dubbed HP ExpertOne and formally announced at Interop NYC, will address those HP partners looking to help fulfill the company's converged infrastructure vision -- that is, the intersection of networking, storage, servers, software and PCs to drive the enterprise data centers of the future.

Data center solutions training, HP argues, can't be product- or segment-specific any longer, because the solutions themselves aren't in silos, they're converged.

"The change is quite rapid and requires IT professionals who understand how to architect and implement converged infrastructure," said Lyle Speirs, director, sales and marketing, Global Certification and Learning, HP.

ExpertOne, which HP has been rolling out to partners over the past six months, will be delivered by more than 150 independent learning centers and academic institutions around the world, and its courses can be taken online or in-person. Partners with existing HP certifications in particular areas -- storage, for example, or networking -- will see those certifications transitioned into HP ExpertOne, according to Speirs. HP will also continue to invest market development funds in helping partners achieve certifications.

Next: First Up: The Networking Piece

The first announced piece of ExpertOne is the HP ExpertOne Network Certification portfolio, which includes 14 certifications across five skill levels, and is intended for partners who want to build converged networks, Speirs explained.

Partners seeking HP ExpertOne Networking certifications can be fast-tracked through different training areas depending on where their expertise lies already. A partner proficient in HP storage and servers, for example, wouldn't have to train in those areas as he looks to add networking competencies.

The training, according to HP, also reflects HP's role as one of many vendors that play a role in data center architecture. "These are open, multivendor environments," Speirs said. "It is a multi-vendor world."

One specific certification is HP's ExpertOne Master ASE -- Converged Infrastructure Architect, which combines training on business processes and investment analysis with technology training and implementation skills.

"It includes not only the technical side of the job role, but also the totally unique business technology and process competency role," Speirs explained. "Not only are we looking at a board test that says you have to understand how to analyze and recommend and design a converged infrastructure solution, but we also want to ensure we can measure the ROI on that for the enterprise."

Next: More Strengths, More Services

In addition to thee ExpertONE certifications, HP has launched what it's calling Open Standards Network Planning and Migration Services, a consulting program offered through its HP Technology Services unit.

Further, HP ExpertOne certified partners will gain membership into Connect, an online community of IT experts using HP enterprise offerings.

HP has been working with its top 400 partners on the ExpertOne rollout, and additional certifications and program enhancements will come later, according to Mike Galane, senior director, ESSN Channel Marketing and Strategy, Americas, at HP.

The networking piece is only the beginning, in other words.

"ExpertOne is the umbrella, if you will, for what we're going to be working on here," Galane said. "There will be many more announcements coming. It's not a bunch of silos anymore, and it's really about pulling all of the pieces together. Networking is what the first round of excitement will be."

Thu, 14 Dec 2023 18:10:00 -0600 text/html https://www.crn.com/news/networking/227900316/hp-unveils-new-converged-infrastructure-training-and-certification
HP TET, DElEd 2024 test schedule released at hpbose.org, check date sheet here Himachal Pradesh Board of School Education (HPBOSE) has released the examination schedule for HP DElEd CET and HP TET 2024. Candidates can check the date sheet for the Diploma in Elementary Education (DElEd) and Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) here or on the official website at hpbose.org.
As per the schedule, the HP TET 2024 will be conducted twice a year - from June 22 to July 02 and November 15 and 26, 2024. The registration for the first phase of HP TET 2024 will open on May 04 and for the second phase, the registration will begin on September 27, 2024.
Whereas, the HP DElEd 2024 test will be conducted once a year from April 20, 2024 onwards. The Board has released the examination schedule well in advance to avoid overlapping with other eligibility and recruitment exams.
HP DElED, TET Date Sheet 2024
Exam Name
Date of Exam
DElEd Common Entrance Test 2024
June 8, 2024 (M)
JBT TET June 2024
June 22, 2024 (M)
June 23, 2024 (E)
TGT (Non-Med) TET June-2024
June 30, 2024 (M)
Language Teacher TET June-2024
June 30, 2024 (E)
TGT (Arts) TET June-2024
June 30, 2024 (M)
TGT (Med) TET June-2024
June 30, 2024 (E)
Punjabi TET June 2024
July 02, 2024 (M)
Urdu TET June 2024
July 02, 2024 (E)
JBT TET Nov 2024
Nov 15, 2024 (M)
Nov 15, 2024 (E)
TGT (Arts) TET Nov 2024
Nov 17, 2024 (M)
TGT (Med) TET Nov 2024
Nov 17, 2024 (E)
TGT (Non-Med) TET Nov 2024
Nov 24, 2024 (M)
Language Teacher TET Nov 2024
Nov 24, 2024 (E)
Punjabi TET Nov 2024
Nov 26, 2024 (M)
Urdu TET Nov 2024
Nov 26, 2024 (E)

Download: HP DElEd, TET 2024 Date Sheet
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
Q. When is the HP TET 2024 scheduled to be conducted?
The HP TET 2024 is scheduled to be conducted twice a year, from June 22 to July 02, 2024, and November 15 to 26, 2024.
Q. What are the registration dates for HP TET 2024?
The registration for the first phase of HP TET 2024 will open on May 04, and for the second phase, it will begin on September 27, 2024.
Q. How often will the HP DElEd 2024 test be conducted?
The HP DElEd 2024 test will be conducted once a year, and the scheduled date is April 20, 2024.
Q. Why did the Himachal Pradesh Board of School Education release the examination schedule well in advance?
The Board released the examination schedule well in advance to avoid overlapping with other eligibility and recruitment exams.
Sun, 24 Dec 2023 08:22:00 -0600 en text/html https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/education/news/hp-tet-deled-2024-exam-schedule-released-at-hpbose-org-check-date-sheet-here/articleshow/106250507.cms
HP TET November 2022 test schedule released at hpbose.org

The Himachal Pradesh Board of School Education (HPBoSE) has released the test schedule for the HP Teacher Eligibility Test November 2022. As per the notification, the test is scheduled to be conducted from December 10 to 25, 2022, in two shifts — 10.00 AM to 12.30 PM and 2.00 PM to 4.30 PM.

The test will be conducted for J.B.T. TET, Shastri TET, TGT (Arts) TET, TGT (Medical) TET, TGT(Non-Medical) TET, Language Teacher TET, Punjabi TET, and Urdu TET. Candidates can get the test schedule from the official website hpbose.org.

Direct link to the test schedule.

Meanwhile, the application process for HP TET is underway at hpbose.org till November 22, 2022. The last date to apply for the examination with a late fee of Rs 300 is November 25, 2022. No Application will be entertained thereafter.

“Candidate is allowed to submit only one Application Form against same subject. Multiple Applications of a candidate for same subject are liable to be rejected,” reads the notification.

Examination Fee

The applicants from General and its sub-category (except PHH) are required to pay the Fee of Rs 800, whereas Rs 500 is applicable to candidates from OBC/ST/SC/Physical Handicapped (PHH) categories.

Steps to apply for HP TET November 2022

  1. Visit the official website hpbose.org
  2. On the homepage, click on “TET (Nov-2022)”
  3. Register and proceed with application process
  4. Fill up the form, upload the documents, and pay the fee
  5. Submit the form
  6. Take a printout for future reference

Direct link to apply for HP TET November 2022.

For more details, candidates are advised to visit the official website here.

Thu, 17 Nov 2022 02:15:00 -0600 Scroll Staff en text/html https://scroll.in/announcements/1037660/hp-tet-november-2022-exam-schedule-released-at-hpbose-org
Exam Procedures

Your test invitation, or Notice to Schedule (NTS), email from Meazure Learning will have links for you to check your computer system. If you take your test online, it is important to verify that your computer meets the minimum requirements and that you have reliable access to the Internet. An internet connection disruption will suspend the test session. 

IMPORTANT: If taking the test online, you must use a computer on which you have full admin access.


  • You must be alone in the room throughout the test
  • You are required to have a webcam installed on your test workstation
  • PC computers are recommended; however MACs are also acceptable
  • Chromebooks, tablets, iPads, dual/multiple monitors, and projectors are not permitted to be used as a testing device
  • Your computer must meet the system and equipment requirements listed here

Additional Resources

  • Preview the Candidate Experience with ProctorU
  • Browse the ProctorU Resource Center 

​If you have computer system questions after following the instructions provided by Meazure Learning's schedule confirmation email, please contact Meazure Learning at +1 919-572-6880 or candidatesupport@meazurelearning.com.

Note: Meazure Learning, Scantron, and ProctorU are all one-and-the-same organization.

  • Your valid, government issued photo ID (e.g., driver's license, passport, state-issued ID card) 
  • The printed test confirmation notice you received from Meazure Learning
  • No other items can be brought into the test environment 
    • A calculator and any other necessary resource materials will be provided on the computer for those taking the test electronically
    • No reference material will be allowed in any test room
    • Please note that storage space will be limited

For all CCST level exams, Units Conversion Tables will be provided to candidates in either paper format (paper/pencil exams) or accessible within the electronic test interface for reference during the exam. Click here to review the Units Conversion Tables.

It is important to be certain when selecting the method and time you want to take the exam. You may incur fees if you change the time and method of testing. Exams must be scheduled in advance as follows: 

  • Candidates in the United States and Canada: you must submit your scheduling request at least two calendar days prior to your desired test date
  • Candidates in other countries: you must submit your scheduling request at least five calendar days prior to your desired test date

If you are within your test window or eligibility period, you may reschedule your test appointment before the online and Test Center reschedule cut-off times via the online test scheduling system. If you are outside your test window and want to request an extension, please contact certifications@isa.org.

Changing from online test to another online exam

There is no rescheduling fee. However, it must be changed no less than 24 hours prior to the scheduled appointment date and time.

Changing from online test to Test Center exam

There is no rescheduling fee. However, it must be changed at least 24 hours in advance of the scheduled appointment. Additionally, you must reschedule the new appointment no less than two calendar days in advance of the new appointment at a Meazure Learning test center.

Changing from Test Center test to another Test Center exam

You will incur a rescheduling fee of 50 USD. Rescheduling fees are payable to Meazure Learning via a secure e-commerce site (credit card). The reschedule cut-off time is no later than two calendar days prior to the test appointment. Additionally, if you are scheduling a new online test appointment, it must be done no less than 24 hours prior to the new appointment date and time.

Reschedule Fees:

CAP Associate and CST Associate:
  • ISA members: 76 USD
  • Non-members: 95 USD
All other Certificate Programs:
  • ISA members: 120 USD
  • Non-members: 150 USD
CAP Certification Program:
  • ISA members: 108 USD 
  • Non-members: 135 USD
CCST Certificate Programs:
  • ISA members: 116 USD
  • Non-members: 145 USD

You can cancel an test through Meazure Learning's online test scheduling system.

  • Online test appointments must be cancelled no less than 24 hours prior to the scheduled appointment date and time. There is no cancellation fee
  • Exam center appointments must be cancelled no less than two calendar days prior to the scheduled testing appointment. There is a cancellation fee of 50 USD payable to Meazure Learning via a secure e-commerce site (credit card)

You may retest as many times as needed, if you do not pass or if you miss your scheduled exam, within your test window or eligibility period. However, there is a fee each time that is payable to ISA. If you need to retest or have missed your exam, you must submit a request to certifications@isa.org.

If a candidate fails their exam, they may retest as many times as needed within their 12-month certification test window or six-month certificate eligibility period. There is a fee each time retesting is needed. If a candidate does not pass the test within the program test deadline, the applicant must reapply for that certification or register again for the certificate course to sit for the exam.

If you fail to appear for a scheduled test or arrive more than 15 minutes after the scheduled start time, you will be considered a no-show and forfeit your exam. However, you may retake a missed test by paying a rescheduling fee to ISA if you are within your test window or eligibility period. To request a rescheduled exam, email certifications@isa.org with your request. See test procedures section #4, Rescheduling an Exam, for reschedule fee costs.

You may qualify for an exception if you meet certain conditions and submit documentation to Meazure Learning no later than five calendar days after the scheduled test appointment. If the exception is approved, there will be a no-show exemption fee of 50 USD payable via secure e-commerce (credit card) and collected by Meazure Learning. Please contact Meazure Learning by phone at +1 919-572-6880 or email candidatesupport@meazurelearning.com for more details.

All ISA certification exams are closed-book and have multiple choice questions.  We apply a modified Angoff Method to determine the pass point for each test (learn more about the modified Angoff Method below). Our certification exams last between 3 and 4 hours and our certificate exams last two hours.

ISA does not provide a passing score; you are only notified whether you passed or failed. If you fail an exam, you will receive a score report that lists the domains and indicates the percentage of questions answered correctly within each domain. Note that the percentages are not used to calculate a candidate’s passing score.

You will see your test results on the screen at the completion of the exam. You will also receive your test results immediately via email from (candidatesupport@meazurelearning.com). If you do not receive an email containing your results within 24 hours, please contact Meazure Learning by phone at +1 919-572-6880 or email candidatesupport@meazurelearning.com for assistance. 

If you pass your exam, you will receive an email containing a digital badge from isa_badges@isa.org within one business day of completing the exam. To access, manage, and/or share your secure digital badge, use your email address and password to enter your BadgeCert portfolio. If it is the first time accessing your portfolio or if you have forgotten your password, click “Request new password?” on their login page to create your password. More information about using your digital badge can be found here.

Be advised that we update our databases and systems with the previous month’s test data in the first part of the following month.  ISA will update your credential status on the “My Credentials” tab from your ISA account and in ISA's Credential Directory within the first ten (10) business days of the following month you took your exam.

Modified Angoff Method

The modified Angoff Method uses expert judgements to determine the difficulty level of the exam. The easier the exam, the higher the pass point. Likewise, the more difficult the exam, the lower the pass point. The following is a basic outline of the modified Angoff Method (some details have been omitted):

  • A group of subject matter experts (SMEs) independently rate each test question within a given form of the exam. The ratings are defined as the probability, or likelihood, that an acceptably (minimally) competent person with the requisite education and experience will answer the question correctly. An acceptably (minimally) competent person is defined as someone who adequately performs all job functions safely and requires no further training to do so.
  • The SMEs review each test question as a group. A statistical consensus is reached for the difficulty rating of each test question.
  • After the data is refined, the final step is to calculate the mean, or average, of all the test question ratings. This becomes the overall pass point estimation.
Fri, 16 Jun 2023 11:37:00 -0500 en text/html https://www.isa.org/certification/exam-procedures
How To Get PMP Certification: Is PMP Certification Worth It?

Editorial Note: We earn a commission from partner links on Forbes Advisor. Commissions do not affect our editors' opinions or evaluations.

Project Management Professional (PMP)® certification can make you stand out against the competition in the field of project management. If you’ve wondered how to get PMP certification, know that you must first complete work experience, training courses and an exam.

But is PMP certification worth it? In this article, we’ll explore what it takes to get certified, how much you might have to pay and how PMP certification can help you level up your project management career.

What Is PMP Certification?

Professional certifications verify your career skills and allow you to learn more about important concepts and industry best practices that can help in your day-to-day operations.

PMP certification is the most widely recognized in the world of project management. It’s available through the Project Management Institute (PMI), which publishes the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK). The PMBOK is the Holy Grail of knowledge when it comes to project management concepts.

PMP certification demonstrates a strong understanding of the concepts set forth in the PMBOK and other reference materials. This designation can help you distinguish yourself from your peers and gain respected credentials in your field. Along the way, you’ll learn about concepts like Agile, waterfall project scheduling, leadership and business management.

How to Sign Up for PMP Certification

The first step to earning PMP certification is to begin work in the field of project management. PMP certification requires months of work experience. Precise requirements vary depending on your level of education. If you have a bachelor’s degree, you’ll need 36 months of relevant project experience to qualify for the PMP credential. Without a degree, you must complete 60 months of experience.

If you have this work experience or are working toward it, the next step is to complete at least 35 hours of formal PMP training, also called “contact hours,” or hold a current CAPM certification. You can complete contact hours through a PMP certification course, which you may take online or in person. These courses take a few weeks to a few months to complete, and they teach the concepts you should understand before taking the PMP certification exam.

Below, we’ll discuss how to get a PMP certification in more detail, including prerequisites and PMP test costs.

PMP Certification Requirements

You must accomplish a certain amount of professional experience and formal training before you qualify for PMP certification.

If you have completed high school or an associate degree but not a bachelor’s, PMP certification requirements are as follows.

  • 60 months leading projects
  • 35 contact hours

If you have a bachelor’s degree, you must complete the following before pursuing PMP certification.

  • 36 months leading projects
  • 35 contact hours

PMP Cost

Most PMP certification training programs (through which you can earn your contact hours) range in cost from around $300 to around $3,000. Courses offered through well-known colleges and universities tend to cost more, but many also offer for-credit programs that result in undergraduate or graduate certificates. Consider a program that holds GAC accreditation when searching for courses. Free PMP certification training is available through some resources, but usually only for short trial periods.

To sit for the exam, the cost is $405 for PMI members or $575 for nonmembers.

PMP Time Commitment

How long does it take to get PMP certification? The most time-consuming part of the PMP certification process is completing the required work experience. Start documenting your work experience as soon as you consider applying for PMP certification. Once you get that experience under your belt, the rest of the certification process involves studying and scheduling your test. The time spent on this step can vary depending on your schedule and study habits, location and testing center availability.

Most PMP certification training courses take only a few weeks to a few months to complete. After that, it’s up to you how much time you spend studying for the certification exam. Retakes cost $275 for PMI members and $375 for nonmembers, so it’s best to go into the test as prepared as possible.

PMP Renewal Costs

Once you’ve passed the PMP exam, you must complete a certain level of continuing education to keep your certification active. The renewal fee, due every three years, is $60 for PMI members or $150 for nonmembers.

Is PMP Certification Worth It?

To determine whether PMP certification is worth it to you, weigh the costs of certification against the potential benefits. Since we’ve listed the costs of PMP certification above, you likely have a good idea of the investment you’d need to make to get certified. Now, it’s time to consider your potential return on that investment.

Benefits of PMP certification

  • Salary increase. PMPs in the U.S. earn about 32% more than their non-certified peers in project management.
  • Greater respect in the industry. The Project Management Institute is the leading organization for project management knowledge and the publisher of the PMBOK. Earning PMP certification through PMI carries lots of weight in the project management industry.
  • Greater career opportunities. Holding PMP certification should make you more marketable when it comes to looking for better or different positions in project management.

Consider Your Career

Are you looking to make a career change? Move into a higher role in your current team? In either case, PMP certification could be just what you need to level up your career. As part of the certification process, you’ll learn industry best practices that you can start incorporating into your day-to-day work life immediately.

Look at Earning Potential vs. Certification Cost

According to PMI, PMP-certified professionals in the U.S. earn a median annual salary of $123,000, compared to a median of $93,000 for their non-certified colleagues. This translates to a 32% salary increase for certified PMPs.

Multiply your current salary by 1.32 to estimate your potential PMP certification salary. You can then weigh that salary increase against the cost of PMP certification training and the PMP exam. This cost vs. benefit analysis can help you understand whether PMP certification would be worth it for you.

Mon, 11 Dec 2023 23:13:00 -0600 Christin Perry en-US text/html https://www.forbes.com/advisor/education/get-pmp-certification/
CISSP Certification Requirements And Cost

Editorial Note: We earn a commission from partner links on Forbes Advisor. Commissions do not affect our editors' opinions or evaluations.

The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP®) credential demonstrates mastery of developing and overseeing large-scale cybersecurity programs. When it comes to the best cybersecurity certifications, many consider CISSP the industry’s gold standard. Individuals who meet CISSP requirements can earn the certification and qualify to take on more professional responsibility in their cybersecurity jobs.

This guide offers information on CISSP certification requirements, including experience, suggested preparation times and CISSP certification test costs.

What Is CISSP Certification?

CISSP certification, offered by (ISC)², is an advanced credential for information systems and cybersecurity professionals. This certification highlights an individual’s ability to create, deploy and manage cybersecurity efforts for large organizations.

CISSP certification requirements include a significant amount of professional experience and passing a lengthy exam. This credential suits experienced workers over entry-level and mid-level professionals.

Though this certification is not required by employers, it can boost candidates’ earning power and help them qualify for advanced roles in information security. CISSPs often work in positions like chief information security officer (CISO), network architect, security auditor and security manager, among others.

CISSP Certification Requirements

Aspiring CISSPs should familiarize themselves with the certification’s requirements before pursuing this credential.

Gain Experience

CISSP certification requirements stipulate that each candidate must have a minimum of five years of relevant professional experience. (ISC)² specifies eight security domains:

  • Domain 1: Security and risk management
  • Domain 2: Asset security
  • Domain 3: Security architecture and engineering
  • Domain 4: Communication and network security
  • Domain 5: Identity and access management
  • Domain 6: Security assessment and testing
  • Domain 7: Security operations
  • Domain 8: Software development security

Prospective CISSPs must accumulate experience in two of the eight domains to meet CISSP certification requirements. They can also apply (ISC)²-approved four-year college degrees and other credentials, which may qualify as a year of experience. Paid and unpaid internships also count toward the CISSP requirement.

Pass the Certification Exam

The CISSP test covers the eight domains of security in a four-hour test comprising 125 to 175 required responses. These appear as multiple-choice questions and advanced innovative items. Test-takers must earn a 700 out of 1,000 to pass. Candidates register to take the test with Pearson VUE.

Get Endorsed

After passing the exam, individuals can apply for endorsement online. The endorsement must come from an (ISC)²-certified professional who can advocate for your professional experience as a credential-holder in good standing. Individuals must receive endorsements within nine months of passing the exam.

Cost of Becoming a CISSP

Earning CISSP certification can deliver many professional benefits, but individuals should also understand the costs associated with pursuing the credential. Along with the required time investment, consider the following CISSP certification test costs and any required payments relating to preparation and recertification.

CISSP Certification test Prep

Many organizations offer prep courses for the CISSP certification exam, and their costs vary drastically. Make sure to include test prep costs, which may range from a few hundred dollars to a few thousand, in your CISSP budget. (ISC)² offers several test prep methods, including self-paced, instructor-led and team-based options.

CISSP Certification test Cost

The CISSP certification test costs $749. Individuals can receive vouchers from partner organizations after completing CISSP test training courses.

Recertification Cost

Individuals must meet CISSP recertification requirements every three years to maintain their credentials. Each certification holder must earn 120 continuing professional education (CPE) credits over this three-year period. Costs relating to CPEs can vary significantly, but each certified individual must pay an annual $125 fee to (ISC)².

Common Careers for CISSPs

Individuals who have met CISSP requirements and earned their credentials can pursue work in many information security and cybersecurity roles. As of 2023, the number of open cybersecurity roles far outpaces the number of qualified professionals, indicating strong continued demand in the sector.

We sourced salary information for this section from Payscale.

Data from Cyberseek.org indicates that among current cybersecurity openings requiring certification, CISSP ranks as the most in-demand credential. The following section explores roles for CISSP certification-holders.

Chief Information Security Officer

Average Annual Salary: Around $173,500
Required Education: Bachelor’s degree in cybersecurity, information security or a related field; master’s preferred
Job Description: CISOs rank among the top positions in information security for responsibility and salary. This C-suite role reports directly to the CEO and requires significant experience, practical skills and expertise in information security.

CISOs oversee their organizations’ information security efforts. Often referred to as “chief security officers,” they supervise teams of infosec workers, set organizational directives, establish company-wide best practices and manage resource allotment. CISOs working in large, international businesses may interact with government agencies and congresspeople to ensure compliance with legal standards for information security.

Information Technology Director

Average Annual Salary: Around $125,000
Required Education: Bachelor’s degree in computer science or related field, MBA degree often preferred
Job Description: IT directors oversee departments of IT workers and manage organizations’ computer systems operations. They provide solutions to companies’ computer-related issues, including software upgrades, security concerns and general technical issues. IT directors communicate with executives to ensure company-wide directives are carried out successfully.

These directors research new IT software and hardware to keep their organizations up to date and safe. They track metrics for managing IT professionals, along with storage, hardware and software. IT directors also handle employee schedules and budget planning. As department heads, they must possess strong communication skills to interact with mid-level professionals and C-suite executives.

Security Analyst

Average Annual Salary: Around $73,500
Required Education: Bachelor’s degree in cybersecurity, computer and information technology or a related field
Job Description: Security analysts work in computer systems, networks and information security departments to prevent, monitor and respond to security breaches. This broad professional title refers to workers who handle a variety of tasks in computer and network security.

These professionals work in many industries as “first responders” for cyberattacks. They must demonstrate deep knowledge of hardware, software and data storage to understand potential vulnerabilities and security solutions. Security analysts may help design security systems and handle encryption efforts for businesses to protect sensitive information.

Network Architect

Average Annual Salary: Around $126,000
Required Education: Bachelor’s degree in network engineering or a related field; master’s in cybersecurity or a related field often preferred
Job Description: Network architects design and implement organizations’ security infrastructures. These professionals test and analyze existing safety structures to identify vulnerabilities and improvements. They install and maintain computer systems, including interconnected devices like firewalls and routers.

Before deploying any updates or upgrades, these information security professionals create models to test their networks in a controlled environment. Modeling allows network architects to forecast security and traffic issues before implementing their infrastructures in the real world. They also train and educate IT workers on organizational best practices.

Frequently Asked Questions About CISSP Requirements

What are the requirements to become CISSP-certified?

The two primary CISSP requirements are passing the test and gaining five years of relevant professional experience.

No. CISSP certification suits experienced cybersecurity and information security professionals, requiring a minimum of five years of experience in the field.

Mon, 01 Jan 2024 01:12:00 -0600 Matt Whittle en-US text/html https://www.forbes.com/advisor/education/cissp-certification-requirements/
Certified Paralegal test Preparation

This course is tailored for paralegals, legal assistants, aspiring legal professionals, and anyone seeking to enhance their understanding of federal law. Whether you're preparing for the Certified Paralegal test or simply aiming to bolster your legal expertise, this course can assist you towards successfully completing your goal.

Tue, 29 Aug 2023 11:39:00 -0500 en text/html https://www.utsa.edu/pace/paralegal/certified-paralegal-exam-preparation.html
Autodesk Certified Professional: Revit for Architectural Design test Prep No result found, try new keyword!This online course from Autodesk prepares you by offering an overview of skills that match what is covered in the Autodesk Certified Professional: Revit for Architectural Design exam. The video ... Sat, 02 Oct 2021 22:29:00 -0500 https://www.usnews.com/education/skillbuilder/autodesk-certified-professional:-revit-for-architectural-design-exam-prep-0_MN9u__BQEemZRwojBDrEPA CSM certification: Costs, requirements, and all you need to know

The Certified ScrumMaster (CSM) certification sets the standard for establishing Scrum theory, developing practical applications and rules, and leading teams and stakeholders through the development process.

CSM certification

Agile practices are being rapidly adopted in project and product management across many industries, and the ScrumMaster is an important leadership role in agile development to not only Improve workflow but increase your value as your career evolves. The Certified ScrumMaster (CSM) certification, available through the Scrum Alliance, is an entry-level certification aimed at providing professionals with an awareness of the methodologies and values of Scrum, including team performance, accountability, and iterative progress. This certification is beneficial for people in product delivery who use the Scrum framework or those responsible for optimizing Scrum, including ScrumMasters and their teams.

Becoming a CSM offers individuals various valuable benefits, including increased recognition and credibility as a leader, additional opportunities within organizations with agile practices, leverage with future opportunities, and a demonstrated knowledge of Scrum principles.

CSM certification requirements

There are no prerequisites to enroll in CSM training but training is required to become certified. To earn a CSM credential, applicants must understand the Scrum framework and its principles and practices. The Scrum Alliance offers numerous resources on Scrum fundamentals, including the Scrum Alliance expert blog, member articles, videos, presentations, and reports.

Applicants must attend a CSM course, spread across two days in person or four online, taught by a Certified Scrum Trainer. The course provides a full overview of how to organize and support a Scrum team, and covers learning objectives including scope, Lean, agile, coaching, and service to the development team, product owner, and organization.

After completing the course, you have two opportunities within 90 days at no cost to pass the test through the Scrum Alliance portal and become a Certified ScrumMaster. After up to two attempts within 90 days, however, there’s a $25 charge for each additional attempt. Once you pass the CSM exam, you must submit a license agreement for the Scrum Alliance to accept, as well as complete your Scrum Alliance membership profile.

CSM certification costs

The initial certification fee for each student who successfully completes a Certified ScrumMaster course is paid by the Certified Scrum Trainers. The training course fees, which range from $350 to $1,000, also cover the following:

  • The first two years of certification
  • Two attempts to take the test (within 90 calendar days of attending the course)
  • Course materials provided by each instructor in class (must be Scrum Alliance approved)
  • The two-day course either online or in-person
  • Two-year membership to the Scrum Alliance community

CSM certification exam

The CSM test consists of 50 multiple-choice and true/false questions in 60 minutes. You’ll need to correctly answer a minimum of 37 questions for a passing grade of 74%. The test covers key Scrum elements, including general Scrum knowledge, Scrum roles, Scrum meetings, and Scrum artifacts. Applicants can only attempt the test twice without additional charge within the 90-day timeline of having completed the required two-day course. Otherwise, an additional $25 is required for each subsequent attempt.

CSM certification value

There are real benefits to getting CSM certified, not just for your organization but also on a personal level. The certification gives you a credential of demonstrable leadership value that goes beyond traditional project managers. Benefits also include improving team management, collaboration, and performance to ensure project work progresses seamlessly and efficiently. It also ensures Scrum is being applied correctly and consistently, and that everyone is aligned in their understanding of the framework. Plus, CSM certification provides a career-boosting benefit and opens up opportunities for professional growth.

It’s also about being part of a community. After completing all the steps and becoming a CSM, you’ll receive a two-year membership to the Scrum Alliance and can join local user groups and online social networks, as well as get access to discounts on gatherings, and more.

CSM certification renewal

Your CSM must be renewed every two years. Doing so requires a total of anywhere from 10 to 40 hours of Scrum Education Units (SEUs) and a renewal fee, which varies depending on the certification and SEUs required. Staying up to date requires staying current through SEUs. For every hour you spend on continuing education, you receive one SEU, and SEUs fall into four subcategories: events, learning, volunteering, and other independent means.

Eligible activities include the time you spend practicing articles, volunteering, attending events, and taking courses. Examples of SEU options include watching a community webinar, giving back to the agile community through volunteer work, participating in a local user group, attending a global or regional Scrum gathering, and writing a blog post or practicing a book about Scrum/agile. As an additional benefit, taking the CSM earns PMI-certified professionals Professional Development Units (PDUs).

CSM certification training

Applicants must attend a 16-hour CSM course taught by a Certified Scrum Trainer (CST) prior to taking the CSM exam, either spread across two days in person or up to four online. CSTs are the only trainers approved by the Scrum Alliance to prepare you for the exam, and courses provided by CSTs are listed on the Scrum Alliance course search page. And even though live online options are available in addition to in-person training across the globe, self-paced online training is not available at this time.

CSM training should cover Scrum principles, the Scrum framework, definitions, how to run a Scrum project, how to work with teams, how Scrum fits into your organization, and the various roles involved with Scrum. By the end of your training you should be able to understand:

  • Foundations of Scrum and rules
  • How to act as a ScrumMaster for Scrum teams and stakeholders
  • Servant-leadership
  • How to effectively use Scrum
  • How to increase the effectiveness of Scrum at your organization

Once your training is complete, you can expect your instructor to assist with creating an account for you to access a CSM test test site.

Sample CSM test questions

To prepare for the CSM exam, there are many online practice tests with questions that might look similar to these on your test including:

  • Tracking project impediments in a Scrum project is whose primary responsibility?
  • Which concept of the following is NOT defined in the Scrum framework?
  • Which of the following main events are defined in the Scrum framework?
  • Who is responsible for prioritizing the product backlog?

CSM certification salaries and jobs

Becoming a CSM can also provide a big boost to your annual salary. The range for ScrumMasters varies depending on title and location, but Glassdoor calculates an average of $128,000 and some roles can command as high as $165,000. Some such as Agile coach, Scrum trainer, Senior ScrumMaster, Agile Scrum coach, and Lead ScrumMaster are typical titles that can be expected, depending where you are on your career track.

Having achieved ScrumMaster certification opens up doors to more senior positions, and regardless of the role you choose, all indications point to a secure and stable future full of opportunities.

Fri, 08 Dec 2023 00:22:00 -0600 en text/html https://www.cio.com/article/222489/csm-certification-guide-certified-scrummaster-exam-explained.html

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