ISTQB-Advanced-Level-2 PDF obtain - ISTQB Advanced LevelTest Analyst test Updated: 2024
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ISTQB-Advanced-Level-2 ISTQB Advanced LevelTest Analyst Exam
An Advanced Level Technical Test Analyst can:
- recognize and classify the typical risks associated with the performance, security, reliability, portability and maintainability of software systems;
- provide technical elements to the planning, design and execution of tests for mitigating performance, security, reliability, portability and maintainability risks;
- select and apply appropriate white-box test techniques to ensure that tests provide an adequate level of confidence, based on design coverage;
- effectively participate in reviews with developers and software architects applying knowledge of typical defects in the code and architecture;
- Boost the quality characteristics of code and architecture by making use of different analysis techniques;
- outline the costs and benefits to be expected from introducing particular types of test automation.
- select appropriate tools to automate technical testing tasks;
- understand the technical issues and concepts in applying test automation.
Learning Objectives
- Summarize the generic risk factors that the Technical Test Analyst typically needs to consider.
- Summarize the activities of the Technical Test Analyst within a risk-based approach for testing activities.
- Write test cases from a given specification item by applying the Statement testing test technique to achieve a defined level of coverage.
- Write test cases from a given specification item by applying the Modified Condition/Decision Coverage (MC/DC) test technique to achieve coverage.
- Write test cases from a given specification item by applying the Multiple Condition testing test technique to achieve a defined level of coverage.
- Write test cases from a given specification item by applying McCabe's Simplified Baseline Method.
- Understand the applicability of API testing and the kinds of defects it finds.
- Select an appropriate white-box test technique according to a given project situation.
- Use control flow analysis to detect if code has any control flow anomalies.
- Explain how data flow analysis is used to detect if code has any data flow anomalies.
- Propose ways to Boost the maintainability of code by applying static analysis.
- Explain the use of call graphs for establishing integration testing strategies.
- Apply dynamic analysis to achieve a specified goal.
- For a particular project and system under test, analyze the non-functional requirements and write the respective sections of the test plan.
- Given a particular product risk, define the particular non-functional test type(s) which are most appropriate.
- Understand and explain the stages in an applications lifecycle where non-functional tests should be applied.
- For a given scenario, define the types of defects you would expect to find by using non-functional testing types.
- Explain the reasons for including security testing in a test strategy and/or test approach.
- Explain the principal aspects to be considered in planning and specifying security tests.
- Explain the reasons for including reliability testing in a test strategy and/or test approach.
- Explain the principal aspects to be considered in planning and specifying reliability tests.
- Explain the reasons for including performance testing in a test strategy and/or test approach.
- Explain the principal aspects to be considered in planning and specifying performance efficiency tests.
- Explain the reasons for including maintainability testing in a testing strategy and/or test approach.
- Explain the reasons for including portability tests in a testing strategy and/or test approach.
- Explain the reasons for compatibility testing in a testing strategy and/or test approach.
- Explain why review preparation is important for the Technical Test Analyst.
- Analyze an architectural design and identify problems according to a checklist provided in the syllabus.
- Analyze a section of code or pseudo-code and identify problems according to a checklist provided in the syllabus.
- Summarize the activities that the Technical Test Analyst performs when setting up a test automation project.
- Summarize the differences between data-driven and keyword-driven automation.
- Summarize common technical issues that cause automation projects to fail to achieve the planned return on investment.
- Construct keywords based on a given business process.
- Summarize the purpose of tools for fault seeding and fault injection.
- Summarize the main characteristics and implementation issues for performance testing tools.
- Explain the general purpose of tools used for web-based testing.
- Explain how tools support the practice of model-based testing.
- Outline the purpose of tools used to support component testing and the build process.
- Outline the purpose of tools used to support mobile application testing.
ASTQB LevelTest PDF Download
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ISTQB-Advanced-Level-2
ISTQB Advanced LevelTest Analyst Exam
https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/ISTQB-Advanced-Level-2
ISTQB-Advanced-Lev2
Answer: A
Question: 60
Select the correct pair;
I. "Unexpected occurrence that requires a further investigation"
II. "Recognition of failure caused by a defect"
III. Requires a change to the work item
a) Incident
b) Defect
c) Bug
d) Failure
A. I-a,II-a,III-b
B. I-a,II-d,III-b
C. I-b,II-c,III-d
D. I-c,II-d,III-b
Answer: A
Question: 61
Which of the following statements are correct?
I. A failure can be detected only by dynamic testing technique.
II. Defects can exist in test environment.
III. All incidents require a software change.
IV. Code and design reviews can reveal defects
A. I, II, III true
B. I, II, IV true
C. II, III, IV true
D. II, IV true
Answer: B
Question: 62
IEEE 10440-1993 specifies a standard for defect reporting. Which of the following attributes
should be in a defect report as per ISTQB Syllabus?
29
ISTQB-Advanced-Lev2
A. Complete, concise, accurate and objective report.
B. Compete and accurate. Does not have to be concise or objective.
C. Complete and objective. Does not have to be accurate.
D. Accurate. Does not have to be complete, concise or objective.
Answer: A
Question: 63
A Junior software tester at ABC Inc. found a defect while testing release 2 of the eForm
application. The eForm application does not accept more than 5 characters for its' "Last Name"
field. Tester created a defect report. The defect report contains following information;
"eForm application does not accept more than 5 characters for its' "Last Name" field" Select
the correct statement regarding the defect report;
A. Defect report is complete, accurate and concise.
B. Defect report is accurate but not complete.
C. Defect report is complete but not accurate.
D. Defect report is complete but not concise.
Answer: A
Question: 64
A major bank has recently outsourced all of its software development in an effort to reduce its
fixed costs. The new provider will be responsible for all new developments as well as
enhancements to existing ones. The bank has retained its own management team for its
projects. There will be an in-house project manager, development manager and test manager
for each project. Some staff may work on more than one project, depending on the overall size.
An enhancement is being made to allow existing customers to authorise their own loans online,
from Ł1k to Ł10k by answering a series of questions. You are a test manager with the bank and
you have written a test strategy for the outsourced team to follow. Unit testing has begun but
informal conversations with the developers have revealed that they have not received a signed-
off specification from the bank for the enhancement. They do know how loans work though
and have created code from conversations with bank staff alongside their own knowledge.
How could a strategy have helped to avoid this situation?
A. The test strategy would have identified bank staff with the right knowledge for consultation
on the loan requirements.
B. The test strategy would have laid out the process for capturing how the loan process would
work which the outsourced team would have followed.
C. The test strategy would have specified that a signed-off specification would be made
30
available to the coding team prior to the start of development.
ISTQB-Advanced-Lev2
D. The test strategy would have requested that the outsourced team take part in specifying the
requirements, to make use of their knowledge.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option A is about requirements capture, not testing. It may appear in a test plan, which may
show how reviews of specifications may be carried out, but would not appear in the test
strategy (it will say that reviews will be carried out, but would not name specific individuals).
Answer B is again about requirements capture, it would not appear in the test strategy.
Question: 65
The aircrew of a national air defence force has requested changes to the existing aviation
software that provides on-board information about the combat environment. The air force is
currently engaged in a peace-keeping mission in another country and has come under
unexpected threats. The development life cycle is the V model. The software house needs to
change their test management process to ensure delivery at the right time and quality. The
software changes are coming in as the aircrew request them, as a result of their engagements
with hostile forces. The aircrew have requested that the changes are made as quickly as
possible. The project manager has decided to revisit the test management process. The changes
will come as small change requests. The team have worked on the project for over 25 years,
with little staff turnover. Which of the following test measures should be emphasised during
the crisis?
I. Readiness of the test environment for each run.
II. Number of high-priority defects being found.
III. Number of defects being found per tester.
IV. Number of hours overtime being worked by staff.
V. Number of change requests tested versus number passed.
A. I, II and V
B. II, III and IV
C. II, III and V
D. I, II and III
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option I, ‘readiness of the test environment’, while it may be a given, should always be
monitored.
Option II, ‘number of high-priority defects found’ is a good indicator of product quality and
should be included.
31
ISTQB-Advanced-Lev2
Option III, ‘number of defects found per tester’ may be useful, but it would need to be
combined with other data, such as requirements tested to be of any real value.
Option IV, ‘number of overtime hours worked by testers’ is unlikely to be of much concern
here.
Option V, ‘number of change requests passing’ should be monitored.
Question: 66
Which of the following is NOT a true statement?
A. Cost benefit analysis should be done before purchasing test tools and analysis should show
a good potential return on investment.
B. Bid bang approach is the best way to rollout test tools to an organization.
C. Maintenance fees, support fees, licensing fees and learning curve should be considered
before introducing test tools to an organization.
D. Scripted / automated tests can be executed faster during test execution phase.
Answer: B
Question: 67
Which of the following statements are true about risks of introducing test automation tools?
I. Poorly designed test cases automated "as is" results in execution errors.
II. Reduce defect detection due to limited manual testing by a tester.
III. Too many dependencies to integrate test tools and test tool limitations.
IV. Unrealistic expectations from management.
A. I, III true
B. II, IV true
C. All of them are true
D. None of them are true
Answer: C
Question: 68
Which of the following statements are true?
I. Test automation tools can be used only for one project.
II. Test data comparison tool can be used to avoid human data comparison mistakes.
III. A company can utilize multiple test tools to efficiently perform their test activities.
IV. Purchasing suite of test tools from the same vendor guarantees that the tools will work
together. 32
ISTQB-Advanced-Lev2
A. II, III true. I, IV false
B. I, II true. III, IV false
C. II, III, IV true. I false
D. I, II, IV true. III false
Answer: A
Question: 69
Select the correct pair from the following Test Tool Categories?
Test Tools Category:
I. Test Management Tool
II. Web Tools
III. Keyword-Driven Test Automation Tools Features of Test Tools Categories:
a. Supports organization of test artifacts
b. Less likely to modify
c. Help to monitor SLA (service Level Agreements) compliance
A. I-a,II-c,III-b
B. I-b,II-a,III-c
C. I-b,II-c,III-a
D. I-c,II-b,III-a
Answer: A
Question: 70
What is NOT an objective of using a Test Execution Tool?
A. Reduce effort or time related costs
B. Run more tests
C. Repeat tests easily
D. Automate all new features that are going to be delivered in next release.
Answer: D
Question: 71
33
ISTQB-Advanced-Lev2
XYZ Company develops websites for individual users / companies. The testing team tests each
build of the software once development releases it. Once testers complete the testing, they also
work on coding the next build of the software. All testers and developers report to project
manager. What type of independency is achieved above as per ISTQB syllabus?
A. "No independent testers"
B. Testing is done by a tester who is part of the development team
C. "External Test specialists perform testing"
D. "Testing is done by an organization external to the company"
Answer: B
Question: 72
Which of the following is NOT a challenge with outsourcing?
A. Cultural differences
B. Quality
C. Employee turnover
D. Low cost
Answer: D
34
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The program requires 6-10 minutes a day to start the exercises, and you must dedicate a few more minutes every day for the best results. It is suggested that you continue using the program for a year or at least six months to get the best out of it.
Is The Growth Matrix only for the male reproductive system?
No, the program supports blood circulation and regulation. This benefits the reproductive organs and system.
However, it benefits many other areas of the body. The program improves your energy levels, mood, hormones, and so much more than just reproductive system health.
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The Haryana Board 12th Accountancy Model Paper 2023-24 serves as a valuable resource for students preparing for their upcoming exams. This meticulously crafted model paper is designed by experts to provide students with a comprehensive understanding of the test pattern, question types, and the depth of knowledge expected at the Class 12 level.
As an integral component of the Haryana Board's educational framework, the model paper aims to facilitate effective test preparation by offering a structured and representative trial of questions that align with the curriculum. Students can use this resource to assess their grasp of key accounting concepts, enhance their problem-solving skills, and familiarise themselves with the format and difficulty level of questions that may appear in the real examination.
The Haryana Board Class 12 Accountancy trial Paper provides a simulated testing environment that allows students to identify areas of strength and areas that may require additional focus. Furthermore, the model paper serves as a roadmap for effective study planning, enabling students to allocate their time and efforts efficiently across various courses within the accountancy syllabus. By incorporating this resource into their study routine, students can boost their confidence, refine their exam-taking strategies, and ultimately enhance their chances of success in the BSEH Class 12 Accounts test 2024.
General Instructions:
- This question paper comprises two Parts- A and B. There are 30 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
- Part A is compulsory for all candidates.
- Part B has two options i.e. (1) Analysis of Financial Statements and (2) Computerized Accounting. You have to attempt only one of the given options.
- Questions nos. 1 to 10 and 23 – 27 are very short answer-type questions carrying 1 mark each.
- Questions nos. 11 - 15 and 28 are questions carrying 2 marks each.
- Questions nos. 16 to 20 and 29 are questions carrying 3 marks each.
- Questions nos. 21, 22, and 30 are questions carrying 5 marks each.
- There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 2 questions of two marks, 2 questions of three marks, and all questions of Five marks.
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