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920-552 test Questions - GSM BSS Operations and Maintenance Updated: 2024

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Exam Code: 920-552 GSM BSS Operations and Maintenance test Questions January 2024 by Killexams.com team
GSM BSS Operations and Maintenance
Nortel Maintenance test Questions

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920-270 Nortel WLAN 2300 Rls. 7.0 Planning & Engineering
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920-338 BCM50 Rls. 3.0, BCM200/400 Rls. 4.0 & BCM450 Rls. 1.0 Installation, Configuration & Maintenance
920-552 GSM BSS Operations and Maintenance
920-556 CDMA P-MCS Commissioning and Nortel Integration
920-803 Technology Standards and Protocol for IP Telephony Solutions
920-805 Nortel Data Networking Technology
922-080 CallPilot Rls.5.0 Upgrades and System Troubleshooting
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Nortel
920-552
GSM BSS Operations and Maintenance
https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/920-552
Answer: D
Question: 115
What is the meaning of an SCN?
A. Signal Centre Node
B. System Centre Node
C. State Change Notification
D. Synchronous Change Notification
Answer: C
Question: 116
Click on the Exhibit button.
Where is the component name in the PCUSN alarm format indicated in the exhibit?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D
Question: 117
Which alarm indicates a lack of available Agprs resources compared with the number of GPRS
radio resources defined on all GPRS cells of the BSC?
A. 1520
B. 1521
C. 1522
44
D. 1523
Answer: C
Question: 118
Which object assigns the alarms related to the PCU OAM server?
A. MD object
B. PCU object
C. PCUSN object
D. bscMDInterface object
Answer: A
Question: 119
Which board is in charge of collecting the external alarm in a BTS S8000?
A. IFM
B. ABM
C. RECAL
D. ALPRO
Answer: C
Question: 120
Click on the Exhibit button.
Which hardware failure could result when a 1067(Abis Event Reporting Fault - cause: DRX Link)
is triggered?
A. PA
B. H2D
C. DRX
D. CMCF
45
Answer: C
Question: 121
Click on the Exhibit button.
Which object is reporting a failure 1067 (Abis Event Reporting a HW fault - cause: link ko)?
A. bts
B. bsc
C. transceiver
D. btsSiteManager
Answer: D
Question: 122
What is the severity of the 1052 fault (GSM entity downloading failure)?
A. major
B. minor
C. critical
D. warning
Answer: A
46
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Nortel Maintenance test Questions - BingNews https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/920-552 Search results Nortel Maintenance test Questions - BingNews https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/920-552 https://killexams.com/exam_list/Nortel Prepare for the CCST Exam
  • The correct answer is D, A/D converter. A digital controller requires a digital signal as its input. A 4-20 mA transmitter outputs an analog signal. Therefore, a device to convert an analog (A) signal to a digital (D) is required. This class of device is referred to as an A/D converter.

    An I/P transducer is used to convert an analog current (I) signal to a pneumatic (P) signal, as for actuation of final control elements. A P/I transducer is used to convert a pneumatic signal (P) to an analog current (I) signal, as for a pneumatic transmitter in a programmable logic controller loop. A DP transmitter is a differential pressure transmitter, which can output a pneumatic, an analog, or a digital signal, depending on the model of transmitter used.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is C, "sample conditioning system." Answers A and C are items not generally associated with extractive field analyzers. Capillary tubes are used for collecting small samples (water, for instance) from a larger container. There are special capillary tubes that can be used in the analyzer chamber of a gas chromatograph, but they are not constructed from glass. Smooth-walled pipe is important for reducing friction losses in piping systems.

    A trial probe calibration system is important to the overall function and maintenance of an extractive field analyzer. However, these systems are not used to prepare the trial for analysis, but rather to provide a mechanism to verify and maintain analyzer performance.

    A trial conditioning system can contain devices, such as filters, demisters, flow regulators, and heaters. trial conditioning systems are used to bring the trial to the ideal process conditions for accurate measurement in the analyzer itself. The trial conditioning system can be a key maintenance item in an analyzer system, since each device needs to be calibrated, cleaned, etc.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is B, "equal to." In order for air to be discharged from the end of a bubbler purge tube, the air pressure in the tube must be equal to (or higher than) the pressure exerted by the liquid head in the tank.

    As the tank level is decreased, the liquid head pressure at the tip of the purge tube decreases, and more bubbles per unit of time can escape. The corresponding reduction in pressure in the purge tube is proportional to the level in the tank. Therefore, the point at which the liquid head pressure and the purge tube pressure are equal is the highest level (URV = 100%) that the device will measure.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is A, "51 K ohms ± 5%."

    The four-color band coding is:
    Color    Value    Multiplier
    Black    0    1
    Brown    1    10
    Red    2    100
    Orange    3    1000
    Yellow    4    10 K
    Green    5    100K
    Blue    6    1 M
    Violet    7    10 M
    Gray    8     
    White    9     
    Gold    ± 5%    0.1
    Silver    ± 10%    0.01

    So a resistor with four bands, green-brown-orange-gold, has a value of: 5 1 x 1000 ± 5% or 51 KΩ.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is D, series and energized. To measure current, you must connect the two leads of the ammeter in the circuit so that the current flows through the ammeter. In other words, the ammeter must become a part of the circuit itself. The only way to measure the current flowing through a simple circuit is to insert your ammeter into the circuit (in series) with the circuit energized.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is A; it prevents the formation of a second temperature measurement junction.

    A thermocouple measurement junction is formed wherever two dissimilar metals are joined. KX-type thermocouple extension wire is made of the same metals as the K-type thermocouple (chromel and alumel). When extending the thermocouple leads with an extension wire back to the control system input card, KX thermocouple extension wire must be used, and the chromel wire and the alumel wire must be joined to the wire of the same metal in the extension cable. If JX or another type of extension wire is used, another measurement junction is formed. For instance, if JX extension cable is used in the example in this problem, the point where the iron and chromel wires are joined would form another thermocouple. This will negatively affect the intended measurement signal. Proper installation of thermocouple extension wires also requires special terminal blocks to prevent additional junctions from being formed.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is B, "hydraulic actuation." Although many pneumatic actuators can provide a large force, they require either a large diaphragm area (in the case of a diaphragm actuator) or a large cylinder (in the case of a rack and pinion actuator).

    Hydraulic actuators are driven by a high-pressure fluid (up to 4,000 psig) that can be delivered to the actuator by a pump that is remote from the actuator itself. Hydraulic cylinders can deliver up to 25 times more force than a pneumatic cylinder of the same size.

    Manual actuation is accomplished by turning a valve handle, and is limited to the amount of force that an operator can exert on the lever or hand wheel.

    Electric actuation delivers high torques for rotary-style valves, but electric actuators tend to be large and heavy compared to hydraulic actuators.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is D; they measure pressure by sensing the deflection of the diaphragm. For most pressure applications, changes in pressure are detected by the change in deflection of a measuring diaphragm.

    The deflection is converted into an electrical signal (voltage) by a piezoelectric or capacitance device. The small electrical current is converted to a standard signal (e.g., 4-20 mA or a digital signal) by a transmitter. Therefore, answer B is not correct.

    Answer A is not correct, because pressure sensors can measure very small pressure changes (inches of water) and in some cases, millimeters of water.

    Pressure measurement devices are not affected by volume, since they are measuring force over an area only. Many pressure sensors are sensitive to temperature (capillary tubes are filled with fluids that can expand with temperature). Therefore, answer C is not correct.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is C, "Gather information about the problem." Once a problem is identified, data must be gathered and analyzed to determine a viable set of potential actions and solutions.

    The logical analysis troubleshooting method consists of (in order):
    1. Identify and define the problem.
    2. Gather information about the problem.
    3. Evaluate the information/data.
    4. Propose a solution or develop a test.
    5. Implement the solution or conduct the test.
    6. Evaluate the results of the solution or test.
    7. If the problem is not resolved, reiterate until the problem is found and resolved.
    8. If the problem is resolved: document, store/file, and send to the appropriate department for follow up if required.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • The correct answer is B, “location, elevation, and tag number.” Instrument location plans are most often used to support new plant installations and supply the installer information about the real physical location of the installation of an instrument, the elevation of installation (at grade, on a platform, at what height on a process line, etc.), and the tag number of the instrument to be installed.

    Specification numbers (part of answers C and D) are usually indicated on instrument lists and instrument installation details. Wiring plans (part of answer A) are typically shown on conduit and wiring schedules or cabling diagrams. Although these details are useful in the installation of a plant, they are not part of the instrument installation plans.

    Reference: Goettsche, L.D. (Editor), Maintenance of Instruments and Systems, Second Edition, ISA, 2005.

  • Thu, 02 Dec 2021 09:44:00 -0600 en text/html https://www.isa.org/certification/ccst/prepare-for-the-ccst-exam
    Doctoral Candidacy Examination Instructions

    All students participating in a Master of Science or Doctor of Philosophy degree program must complete a thesis or dissertation proposal for approval by the members of the student's steering committee. The major professor and each of the graduate steering committee members must approve the proposal using the Graduate School's proposal approval form. MS thesis proposals should generally be completed two semesters prior to defense of the thesis; PhD dissertation proposals must be completed to achieve candidacy (in concert or in parallel with the candidacy examination process). Each Department/Program may have requirements that exceed those specified broadly in this policy; however, they must be consistent with the Graduate School's requirements. Departmental requirements beyond the minimum stated here must be specified in writing and submitted to the Graduate School as well as listed in departmental web pages. It is the responsibility of the student to be aware of, and comply with, all Graduate School and Departmental dissertation proposal requirements.

    The objectives of this examination are to confirm the student's breadth and depth of knowledge in their chosen field of study as well as the student's understanding of the scientific process. The doctoral candidacy examination should be administered upon completion of the majority of coursework, and successful completion of the test signifies readiness to undertake the research and dissertation component of the doctoral program. This examination must be taken within three years from the first date of matriculation, and at least one year prior to the dissertation defense.

    Upon the recommendation of the appropriate Department Chairperson, the Associate Provost for Instruction and Office of the Graduate School appoints the doctoral candidacy examination committee consisting of the student's major professor, the student's steering committee and an additional faculty member from an appropriate area. Additionally, the Associate Provost for Instruction and Office of the Graduate School appoints a committee chair who is not from the department of the student's degree program. The role of the examination committee chair is to manage the examination, ensure its integrity and represent the interests of the faculty and student.

    The examination must have both written and oral components, described below.

    Written Examination

    The purpose of the written test is to assess the readiness of the student to move beyond the coursework stage of the doctoral program, into the development of a substantial research project and dissertation. Traditionally, questioning should verify sufficient breadth and depth of knowledge to successfully undertake such research, and then communicate the results in a scholarly manner appropriate to the discipline.

    To initiate the examination process, the examining committee shall convene at a planning meeting with the student. During the first part of the planning meeting, the committee determines the form and schedule for the process and establishes the date for the oral component (reported on form 6E). The student is then excused from the meeting and the committee develops and discusses the test content. There are three alternative forms for the written component, as follows:

    • Form 1: Each member of the committee (excluding the chair) submits one distinct question, set of questions, or problem related to the objectives of the exam. The questions are discussed and agreed upon at the planning meeting. The major professor administers the written examination. Typically, each question or set of questions must be completed within a prescribed period of time, not to exceed approximately 8 hours each, with additional time permitted for reasonable breaks, meals, etc.. No more than one question or set of questions should be administered per 24 hours. Upon completion by the student, the examination questions are reviewed and graded by the committee members who prepared them. The committee then collectively reviews the entire examination.

    • Form 2: The student prepares a written report on a subject or problem assigned collectively by the examining committee as a whole. The subject or problem must meet the objectives of the examination and its content cannot be directly related to the student's dissertation research topic. The student has approximately one month to develop a thorough understanding of the assigned subject and prepare a written report. The report is reviewed by the committee members and committee chair.

    • Form 3: The student prepares and defends a written proposal of future research likely to be carried out during their Ph.D. project. This research prospectus must be presented to the examining committee two weeks prior to the oral candidacy test and should include preliminary studies supporting the feasibility of the proposed research. The test will test the candidate's understanding of concepts directly related to his or her immediate area of research, knowledge of prior related research that has been conducted by others, their ability to design and interpret experiments in this area, and capacity to think and write independently and to present work plans orally in a clear and rational manner. The report is reviewed by the committee members and committee chair. Form 3 is available only to doctoral students in the Department of Chemistry and Environmental Resources Engineering.

    At least 3 business days prior to the oral exam, the major professor shall confirm with the chair of the examining committee that the oral examination should proceed as scheduled. The written test is thus considered to be "provisionally successful." If the written examination component does not meet the standards established for the candidacy exam, the committee has two options.

    1. If the deficiencies are relatively minor, or in the case of Form 1, limited to a minority of the written questions, the oral test may be postponed by the Office of the Graduate School at the recommendation of the chair of the test committee. The student may then be provided with an additional time period, the length of which should be determined by the full examination committee in consultation with the chair, to address deficiencies identified in the written examination. This time period should be no less than 8 hours (typically for Form 1), and may extend up to 5 business days for Forms 2 and 3. This action is treated as a suspension and extension of the written test "in progress," and, if ultimately successful, does not constitute a failure of the entire exam, nor count toward the limited number of attempts prescribed by Graduate School policy below.

    2. If the deficiencies are severe, the major professor, in consultation with the examination committee may decide to fail the candidate without performing the oral component. This latter action does constitute a failure of the candidacy test in its entirety, and does count toward the limited number of attempts prescribed by Graduate School policy below.

    Oral Examination

    The purpose of the oral examination is to further confirm the fitness of the student to apply the skills and knowledge acquired to date toward a successful and significant research project. The oral examination provides the opportunity for the student to demonstrate their ability to think synthetically and critically in a manner conveying their readiness to commence the dissertation project.

    The oral component of the candidacy examination is typically scheduled for a period of approximately two hours, and is broken in to two distinct rounds of questioning. The first round, lasting approximately 60 minutes, consists of questions from each of the members of the examination committee, including the chair should they choose to contribute questions. Time should be shared equitably among the questioners, with interjections or interruptions by other questioners prohibited during the first round. The second round of questions may be more flexibly structured, with broader discussion and interchange among questioners is encouraged.

    Any member of the faculty may be a silent observer for the oral component. The candidate may also invite a silent student observer to attend the oral examination. At the completion of the oral examination, the candidate and observers are excused from the room and the examination committee determines whether the student has successfully completed the oral component of the test and achieved the status of "doctoral candidate." The committee chair has the option to vote. Unanimous agreement is required to pass the student on the first attempt. If less than unanimous agreement is reached, the student is considered to have failed the first candidacy examination. A student who fails the first candidacy test may request a second exam, which must take place no more than one year from the date of the first examination. The second candidacy examination may, or may not include a new written component, at the discretion of the student's major professor and examination committee, in consultation with the examination chair. At the second exam, the student has passed if there is not more than one negative vote. A student who is determined to have failed the second candidacy examination is terminated from the doctoral program.

    Scheduling the Candidacy Exam

    To schedule a doctoral candidacy examination, the student should complete the following steps:

    1. In consultation with your major professor, complete Form 6B for your Department Chairperson to review, sign, and forward to the Office of Instruction and Graduate Studies. Form 6B should be submitted according to the academic year deadlines for defense exams.

    2. The Associate Provost for Instruction and Office of the Graduate School will assign a faculty member outside of your degree program to serve as chair of your examination committee. When you receive a copy of Form 6C which officially appoints your examination committee, you must consult with all members of your committee (major professor, steering committee, additional examiner, and defense chair) to arrange a mutually convenient date, time, and location for a planning meeting.

    3. You must inform the Office of Instruction and Graduate Studies of the agreed upon date, time, and location for your planning meeting at least two weeks in advance of the date. This Office will confirm in Form 6D these arrangements with all concerned individuals.

    4. At the planning meeting, your test chair and the committee complete Form 6E, the committee chair will sign it and return it to the Office of Instruction and Graduate Studies, which will distribute copies to you and the committee.

    5. If you are using Form 1 of the examination, you and your major professor should arrange for a time and location to administer the questions.

    6. The last step is to meet with your committee and complete the oral examination at the designated date. At the end of the oral examination, your committee will ask you and any observers to leave the room while it determines if you have satisfactorily completed the doctoral candidacy examination. You will be invited back to receive the decision of the committee which will also be reported on Form 6F and returned by the test chair to the Office of Instruction and Graduate Studies.

    Thu, 25 Aug 2022 07:07:00 -0500 en text/html https://www.esf.edu/graduate/programs/docexam.php
    NextGen Bar test MC Questions Only Require Takers To Spot Issues, And Not Apply the Rules

    In law schools, generations of students have been taught the IRAC model to answer legal questions. First, students must spot the issue–what legal doctrine do the facts implicate? Second, students must state the rule–what particular legal precedent, statute, or principle governs this conflict? Third, students must then apply the rule to these facts–under a particular legal standard, how should the court rule? Fourth, students must state the conclusion–who wins, the plaintiff or the defendant?

    Of course, there are many variations of IRAC, and invariably, many students stop using it rigidly at some point during the second year. But the basic process–applying a rule to particular facts is a cornerstone of legal education.

    That background brings me to the NextGen bar exam. I have written about this new formulation of the multistate bar exam, which will launch in some states in 2026. Justice Jay Mitchell of the Alabama Supreme Court already expressed a concern that the National Conference of Bar Examiners (NCBE) is placing DEI concerns over competence. (Critics contend that the bar test is racist, and should be eliminated). I have another concern, which may be related–the NCBE seems to be making the test substantially easier.

    The NCBE released a batch of questions to demonstrate how the NextGen test will function. The multiple choice questions reflect a new approach. Rather than forcing students to memorize particular rules, and then apply them, the new questions only ask students to spot the issue. The thinking is that practicing attorneys do not actually have to memorize particular rules, or even know how to apply them. So long as they can recognize what doctrine is implicated, a quick query on WestLaw, Lexis, and (lord help us) ChatGPT can locate the particular rule, and then the lawyer can figure out how to apply that rule to the facts (or just ask ChatGPT to do it). In short, bar examinees will not have to know the rule, apply the rule, or conclude the case. They only have to spot the issue. Only I, not RAC.

    Consider this Criminal Procedure question:

    You are a criminal defense lawyer representing a client who has been charged with fentanyl possession. The police found the fentanyl in the guest bedroom of the client's uncle's house when responding to a noise complaint at the house. Before entering the house, the officers knocked on the door. When the uncle answered the door, the officers asked if they could look inside the house, and the uncle agreed. The client did not live in the house and was not there at the time of the search. The client had stayed in the guest bedroom of the house two nights prior to the search. The uncle told the officers that the client was the last person to have slept in that room.

    You are considering filing a motion to suppress the fentanyl under the Fourth Amendment.

    Which of the following legal syllabus are the most important for you to research to determine the likelihood of success on a motion to suppress? Select two.

    A. Consent search.
    B. Exigent circumstances.
    C. Hot pursuit.
    D. Probable cause.
    E.Reasonable suspicion.
    F. Standing.

    The correct answer here is A (Consent Search) and F (Standing). Those are the legal syllabus that are "most important" to research. First, would the Uncle have authority to consent to the search? Second, would the criminal defendant have standing to challenge the Uncle's consent? Now the examinee does not actually have to answer whether the motion to suppress would be granted. Who cares if the Uncle could consent to the search? It doesn't matter if the defendant has standing. The test taker doesn't even have to know the relevant rules for consent searches and standing. All she has to do is spot the issue. I suppose the NCBE thinks that a first-year lawyer can simply enter "consent search" and "standing" into ChatGPT, knowing nothing more, and download the answer. I am not confident anyone can figure out these doctrines on the fly.

    Let's try a Property question.

    You are representing a client in a dispute with a neighbor. The client owns a single-family home with several acres of surrounding land. Recently, the client noticed that his neighbor had built a fence that extends onto the client's land. The client is unsure when the fence was built because that part of the client's land is obscured by large trees. When the client contacted the neighbor about the fence, the neighbor claimed that she did not know the location of the property line. The client has shown you a latest survey of the property that confirms the encroachment and has asked you whether he has a claim against the neighbor.

    Which of the following legal syllabus are the most important for you to research before advising the client? Select two.

    A. Adverse possession.
    B. Conversion.
    C. Implied easement.
    D. License.
    E. Negligence.
    F. Trespass.

    The answers here are, once again, A (Adverse Possession) and F (Trespass). The question presented is whether the neighbor's fence encroaches (trespasses) on the client's property, and if there is an encroachment, has the neighbor acquired the right to do so through adverse possession. This question is complicated, because trees obscure the boundary (affecting the open and notorious prong), and the neighbor may not have even known if he was obtaining land through adverse possession (in the lingo, did he have the right claim of right?). I could see a student struggling with applying the rules to this question. But on the bar, an applicant only needs to spot the relevant doctrine, and pray they can figure stuff out when in practice.

    I worry that these questions are far too simple. If the states end up adopting the NextGen exam, they should increase the cut score (the relevant percentage needed to pass the exam). Finally, I worry how this test will trickle down to law school pedagogy. Will professors shift their coverage to no longer require memorizing and applying the rules–only spotting issues? It's true that all lawyers have sophisticated tools at their disposal to research different topics. This new format seems to be a surrender to this technology–don't require students to do what they don't have to. I, for one, do not plan to change how I teach for this exam. And state supreme court justices should take a very long pause before adopting this new exam.

    Wed, 12 Jul 2023 02:47:00 -0500 Josh Blackman en-US text/html https://reason.com/volokh/2023/07/12/nextgen-bar-exam-mc-questions-only-require-takers-to-spot-issues-and-not-apply-the-rules/
    Exam Information

    An test proctor will begin memorizing test instructions approximately 15 minutes before the test start time. Students must be in the test room with their test at this time. If taking the test on a laptop, it must be booted up and have passed the security check. Hand writers must not have a laptop with them in an test room, unless otherwise allowed according to the professor’s instructions. A student entering the test room after the proctor begins memorizing instructions will not receive additional time for booting up their laptop, passing the security check, and/or memorizing test instructions.

    When instructed by the proctor, write your test number on the cover page of your exam, bluebooks, and any scratch paper you turn in as part of your exam. Handwritten test answers must be written in blue books in blue or black ink. Number the bluebooks you use (1 of 1, 1 of 2, 2 of 2, etc.). Proctors will allow time to read the professor’s instructions. Other than counting the number of pages of the exam, students are not permitted to turn the page of an test past the instructions page until the proctor instructs them to do so.

    When taking a closed-book exam, no books, outlines, book bags, purses, or scratch paper (other than the scratch paper provided) may be at your seat during the exam. These items must be left outside of the test room or in the front or sides of the test room. Students may not begin to write anything, including on scratch paper, before the proctor begins a closed-book exam.

    Students taking in-class exams are prohibited from having any electronic communication device, other than a laptop as allowed per the professor's instructions, during the exam. Cell phones and smart watches must be turned off during the test and placed in a bag or backpack. Violations of this rule may be considered an Honor Code violation. A clock in each test room will be the official timekeeper for the exam.

    Non-alcoholic beverages are permitted in test rooms; however, the container must have a lid.

    After the test instructions have been read and the test begins, the proctor will remain in the room. Any student who has a question or problem during an test should see the proctor.

    Students may use the restroom or take a break during an exam. However, all test materials must be left in the test room and no additional time will be given. Students must sign in and out at the front of the room with the proctor.

    Thu, 15 Jun 2023 00:20:00 -0500 en text/html https://www.slu.edu/law/academics/registrar/exam-information/index.php
    Channel Questions Abound For Avaya As Nortel Acquisition Heads Toward Approval Stage

    That question and others were top of mind as news of the planned acquisition raced around the channel Monday.

    Avaya and Nortel confirmed in separate statements that Avaya would pay $900 million in cash and $15 million for an employee retention program to acquire all assets of Nortel's Enterprise Solutions business and shares of Nortel Government Solutions Inc. and Diamondware Ltd.

    The deal -- subject to court approval -- comes after a formal bidding process for Nortel's enterprise business and before that, the $475 million "stalking horse" bid Avaya made for the business in July.

    Nortel entered bankruptcy protection in January after its restructuring plans failed and it lost $5.8 billion last year, and has spent much of 2009 auctioning off pieces of its business.

    In an interview with Channelweb.com, Nortel Enterprise Solutions President Joel Hackney said he had two messages for Nortel's channel following the confirmation that Avaya had won the enterprise business.

    "The first message is that this is an extremely positive day where we're able to demonstrate to our current and future partners that we now have a clear path forward that allows us to not only continue our partnerships but grow our relationships," Hackney said. "The second message is, the partner base is as important to us or more important to us than it's ever been. One of the major drivers of this transaction was Avaya's interest in learning and leveraging from Nortel's channel relationships and bringing forward the benefits of working with both Nortel and Avaya."

    Avaya, which declined comment to Channelweb.com beyond its Monday morning statement, has spent much of the past few years refocusing its efforts on the channel and is expected to launch its global channel program at its partner conference in Nashville, Tenn., in mid-October.

    The company has been offering incentives to Nortel partners to migrate to Avaya since late last year, and, Hackney argued, having Nortel's partner base in its purview helps Avaya accelerate its own channel goals.

    "Avaya for several years had been pursuing more direct strategy but then expressed interest in growing a more channel-friendly model," Hackney said. "It would have taken them years to do that and whether they would have been able to do that effectively is a question. We provide a more complete product suite and one that can enable partners to compete more directly in the marketplace with other solutions, and also augment our partners' capability gaps in ways we are not able to do as two separate companies."

    Hackney wouldn't comment on what his role or those of his executive team would be under Avaya management, or what steps would be taken immediately if the deal is approved.

    Hackney said during a conference call for analysts that at least 75 percent of the Nortel unit's workforce would be preserved, but did not elaborate on how the $15 million in employee retention program money from Avaya would be used. Channel observers reacted with guarded optimism about the Avaya-Nortel agreement, with many saying they were glad a long period of turmoil for Nortel might be coming to an end.

    "I'm so happy to see this thing finally come to a conclusion and have this uncertainty behind us," said Tony Parella, president and CEO of Shared Technologies, a Coppell, Texas-based solution provider. "I think there'll be mixed reviews for a while, but given the strain the industry's been under, this is something that's very important."

    Shared, which is one of Nortel's 10 largest partners, was also among the 19 Nortel partners recruited by Avaya in the past year. Parella said he heard no indication from Avaya that there were immediate plans to discontinue any existing Nortel product lines, and that he thought Avaya would respond appropriately to areas in which Nortel was either stronger from a product standpoint or where Avaya doesn't already play, such as in data networking.

    "I see very little risk of them dismantling the Nortel platform and cannibalizing the customer base. That's not the sense you get from Avaya at all," he said. "This Avaya has been very different than the Avaya I saw the past 10 years. I never took on that line before because they were not pro-channel, and they courted me a long time."

    Despite its troubles, Nortel is still a name, Parella said.

    "I still believe there's a lot of loyalty to the Nortel brand, and now they can go forward with the right capital structure," he said. "They were dead in the water, with no way to turn their company around with so many historical sins. But from the customer view, how Avaya handles messaging is critical. Partners need to hear what the scale of the business does for Avaya."

    Some VARs contended that Avaya needs to communicate what's going to happen to Nortel's products and channel leadership early on -- or risk a flight of confused partners to competitors.

    Cisco, Juniper and others have been stalking Nortel's channel during the tumult -- a trend that will continue if Avaya and Nortel stumble during the transition, said Bob Hafner, managing vice president of Gartner Research's enterprise communication application team.

    "Will Siemens, will Cisco, will Microsoft start targeting some of the Nortel channels in the interim? Yes. They will be looking at the channel as an opportunity to say, you know, during this next period of multiple years while Avaya and Nortel are sorting through their products and strategies and trying to rationalize the channels, why don't you come with us? I expect that to be a conversation that all Avaya/Nortel competitors try to have," he said.

    "We're going to need to hear, as soon as possible, and as clearly as possible, what products live and what products die," said one Nortel solution provider, who asked not to be identified. "It'll take them some time to figure that out, but the sooner they can communicate that as clearly as possible, the sooner the channel will be confident. Otherwise, the transition will be messy."

    What several solution providers and Hafner agreed on was certainty that the deal would close.

    "I believe it will close, it's just the timing," Hafner said. "One thing I am saying is that I believe it's not going to happen nearly as quickly as they think it is. Everything that's happened with Nortel has taken longer than expected, so why should this be any exception? It could be as late as the second quarter of next year."

    How Avaya continues to evolve as a channel player will be crucial to its success with Nortel, observers agreed.

    "The reality is they'll [Avaya] never get the scale and growth they need if they don't have the channel -- you can't possibly get there with a direct sales force in today's market," Parella said. "But we see the commitment, and they've embraced us and been very supportive. And at the end of the day -- even all you're going to hear about antitrust and courts -- this deal will close."

    "The execution over the next couple of years will make the difference between an amazing merger or acquisition, and one of those we talk about as 'maybe it would have been better if they'd stayed separate,'" Hafner added. "Don't get me wrong, in any scenario, it will be positive for Avaya. They got a good deal on this and it's a large customer base. But will it be a total success or an average success? It's going to be a couple years before we know that."

    Mon, 14 Sep 2009 12:00:00 -0500 text/html https://www.crn.com/news/networking/220000285/channel-questions-abound-for-avaya-as-nortel-acquisition-heads-toward-approval-stage
    Examination advice

    A typical examination question in Mathematics will have several parts to it. Some parts (most usually at the beginning of the question) test your knowledge, by asking you to reproduce "bookwork", i.e. material presented in the lectures. Really, these parts test how well you've revised. Occasionally, especially in certain more advanced courses, there are entire questions that are bookwork. In some courses, some pieces of bookwork come up in the test almost every year. In other courses, hardly any bookwork is set explicitly.

    Tip: Figure out which pieces of bookwork come up most frequently, and make sure you can answer those questions easily and quickly.

    You would be surprised how many poor attempts at routine bookwork questions we see every year. These are the parts of the questions that we expect students to be able to do.

    Other parts of examination questions involve a "problem". In a "Methods" course, this will typically involve you applying a known technique from the course, and again this is something we expect you to be able to do. In a Pure Mathematics course, you might be asked to prove a result, or to apply a result in a particular setting.

    Tip: Sometimes (but certainly not always!), the first part of the question is intended as a big hint as to how you should approach the second part.

    Many test questions, especially those that are otherwise very routine, have a last part (a "rider") which is more challenging than the rest of the question. This is quite deliberate, and the intention is to test whether you've really understood the material.

    Tip: Do try all the riders (they're not always so hard after all!) but don't waste too much time on them in an test if there are other things you can tackle instead.

    Students sometimes seem to be annoyed that they have to do something clever to get 100% on a question. Don't forget, in many other subjects it's practically impossible to score 100% on a question!

    Tip: Make sure you've answered all the parts of the question. Sometimes you're asked to do seven or eight things, and it's easy to overlook one.

    Fri, 28 Aug 2020 05:22:00 -0500 en-GB text/html https://www.lse.ac.uk/Mathematics/Current-Students/Examination-advice
    8 Easy Tips For Students To Attempt All Questions In Exam 8 Easy Tips For Students To Attempt All Questions In Exam

    By Anshika Verma12, Dec 2023 11:50 AMjagranjosh.com

    Use the Additional 15 Minutes

    Students are given this extra time so they can carefully study the questions before beginning to write. Create a strategy for how to write the exam.

    Set the Priority

    Make a list of the questions you feel most comfortable answering. It's not necessary to write answers in the same sequence as it appears in exam.

    Write Brief, to the Point Answers

    Examine a question attentively and make sure you comprehend its meaning. Try to keep your answers and explaination as brief as possible.

    Choose Questions Wisely

    Typically, the paper has a few questions with internal choices. Choose wisely while answering. It's up to you to decide which questions you want to try.

    Effective time management

    It’s important to allocate time wisely for each and every question so that in the last 15 minutes of the test there is no mess to complete the exam.

    Stay calm and positive

    It’s crucial to maintain a positive mindset throughout the exam. If you get anxious it automatically becomes tough for you to write the exam.

    Use headings and bullets

    Using bullets and headings will make your answers more easy to understand. It will also help you to see if all key points are covered or not.

    Review answers carefully

    If time allows you, try to revise all your answers and check out if something important is missing or not. Atlast, believe in your potential.

    बिहार बोर्ड ने 10वीं 12वीं के मॉडल पेपर किए जारी

    Mon, 11 Dec 2023 17:24:00 -0600 text/html https://www.jagranjosh.com/web-stories/easy-tips-for-students-to-attempt-all-questions-in-exam-72905 Final test Schedule

    Spring 2024

    For Fall semesters, there will be one memorizing day on Monday of the first test week and one memorizing day on Friday of the first test week. For Spring semesters, there will be two memorizing days at the beginning of the first test week.

    Final exams are scheduled by the Registrar's Office based on the meeting pattern of the class with the exception of certain basic course sequences that enroll large numbers of first-year students listed below. This schedule avoids direct conflicts for students and minimizes the number of students with more than two exams on a single day.

    Any change to assigned final test dates and time requires additional approvals. Undergraduate students who have test questions should contact their four-year advisor. Faculty and staff who have questions should contact courses@case.edu.

    Class Meeting Exam Day Exam Time Grades Due
    MWF 8:25-9:15 am May 6 7:30-10:30 pm May 8
    MW/MF/WF 8:00-9:15 am May 6 7:30-10:30 pm May 8
    MWF 9:30-10:20 am May 3 12:00-3:00 pm May 5
    MWF 10:35-11:25 am May 3 8:00-11:00 am May 5
    MWF 11:40 am-12:30 pm May 6 8:00-11:00 am May 8
    MW 12:45-2:00 pm May 8 8:00-11:00 am May 10
    MWF 2:15-3:05 pm May 6 12:00-3:00 pm May 8
    MWF 3:20-4:10 pm May 8 12:00-3:00 pm May 10
    MW 3:20-4:35 pm May 8 12:00-3:00 pm May 10
    MWF 4:25-5:15 pm May 2 7:30-10:30 pm May 4
    MW 4:50-6:05 pm May 2 7:30-10:30 pm May 4
    MW 5:30-6:45 pm May 8 7:30-10:30 pm May 10
    MW 7:00-8:15 pm May 6 3:30-6:30 pm May 8
    M 7:00-9:30 pm May 6 3:30-6:30 pm May 8
    W 7:00-9:30 pm May 6 3:30-6:30 pm May 8
    TR 8:30-9:45 am May 7 12:00-3:00 pm May 9
    TR 10:00-11:15 am May 9 8:00-11:00 am May 11 11:00 am
    TR 11:30 am-12:45 pm May 2 12:00-3:00 pm May 4
    TR 1:00-2:15 pm May 2 8:00-11:00 am May 4
    TR 2:30-3:45 pm May 7 8:00-11:00 am May 9
    TR 4:00-5:15 pm May 9 12:00-3:00 pm May 11 11:00 am
    TR 5:30-6:45 pm May 9 3:30-6:30 pm May 11 11:00 am
    TR 7:00-8:15 pm May 7 7:30-10:30 pm May 9
    T 7:00-9:30 pm May 7 7:30-10:30 pm May 9
    R 7:00-9:30 pm May 7 7:30-10:30 pm May 9

    The course sequences listed below are scheduled outside of the normal test grid because portions of the sequences enroll large numbers of first-year students. The special scheduling of these exams helps spread out final exams for these students.

    Course Exam Day Exam Time Grades Due

    MATH 120/121/122/123/124/125/126
    /223/224/227/228

    May 2 3:30-6:30 pm May 4
    CHEM 105/106/111; ENGR 145 May 3 3:30-6:30 pm May 5
    BIOL 214/215/216 May 6 3:30-6:30 pm May 8
    PHYS 115/116/121/122/123/124/221 May 7 3:30-6:30 pm May 9
    CSDS 132/ECSE 132/ENGR 130/ENGR 131 May 8 3:30-6:30 pm May 10
    Mon, 01 Jan 2024 22:28:00 -0600 en text/html https://case.edu/registrar/dates-deadlines/final-exam-schedule
    What the GRE Test Is and How to Prepare No result found, try new keyword!About half of this test focuses on calculus while roughly a quarter concentrates on elementary, linear and abstract algebra, as well as number theory. The remaining questions cover miscellaneous ... Mon, 25 Jun 2018 03:17:00 -0500 https://www.usnews.com/education/best-graduate-schools/articles/what-the-gre-test-is-and-how-to-prepare





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