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Exam Code: JN0-664 Service Provider Routing and Switching, Professional (JNCIP-SP) exam contents January 2024 by Killexams.com team
Service Provider Routing and Switching, Professional (JNCIP-SP)
Juniper Professional exam contents

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JN0-213 Cloud, Associate (JNCIA-Cloud)
JN0-664 Service Provider Routing and Switching, Professional (JNCIP-SP)
JN0-231 Security ? Associate (JNCIA-SEC)
JN0-335 Security, Specialist (JNCIS-SEC)
JN0-422 Automation and DevOps Specialist (JNCIS-DevOps)
JN0-223 Automation and DevOps, Associate (JNCIA-DevOps)
JN0-649 Enterprise Routing and Switching Professional (JNCIP-ENT)
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JN0-1332 Security Design, Specialist (JNCDS-SEC)
JN0-413 Cloud, Specialist (JNCIS-Cloud)

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Referring to the exhibit, CE-1 is providing NAT services for the hosts at Site 1 and you must provide Internet access
for those hosts
Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. You must configure a static route in the main routing instance for the 10 1 2.0/24 prefix that uses the VPN-
B. inet.0 table as the next hop
C. You must configure a static route in the main routing instance for the prefix that uses the VPN-
D. inet.0 table as the next hop.
E. You must configure a RIB group on PE-1 to leak a default route from the inet.0 table to the VPN-
F. inet.0 table.
G. You must configure a RIB group on PE-1 to leak the 10 1 2.0/24 prefix from the VPN-
H. inet.0 table to the inet.0 table.
Answer: A,B
To provide Internet access for the hosts at Site 1, you need to configure static routes in the main routing instance on
PE-1 that point to the VPN-A.inet.0 table as the next hop. This allows PE-1 to forward traffic from the Internet to CE-
1 using MPLS labels and vice versa. You need to configure two static routes: one for the prefix that
represents the private network of Site 1, and one for the prefix that represents the public IP address of
Question: 120
Which three mechanisms are used by Junos platforms to evaluate incoming traffic for CoS purposes? (Choose three )
A. rewrite rules
B. behavior aggregate classifiers
C. traffic shapers
D. fixed classifiers
E. multifield classifiers
Answer: A,B,D,E
Junos platforms use different mechanisms to evaluate incoming traffic for CoS purposes, such as:
‚ Behavior aggregate classifiers: These classifiers use a single field in a packet header to classify traffic into different
forwarding classes and loss priorities based on predefined or user-defined values.
‚ Fixed classifiers: These classifiers use a fixed field in a packet header to classify traffic into different forwarding
classes and loss priorities based on predefined values.
‚ Multifield classifiers: These classifiers use multiple fields in a packet header to classify traffic into different
forwarding classes and loss priorities based on user-defined values and filters.
Rewrite rules and traffic shapers are not used to evaluate incoming traffic for CoS purposes, but rather to modify or
shape outgoing traffic based on CoS policies.
You are asked to exchange routes between R1 and R4 as shown in the exhibit. These two routers use the same AS
Which two steps will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the BGP group with the advertise-peer-as parameter on R1 and R4.
B. Configure the BGP group with the as-override parameter on R2 and R3
C. Configure the BGP group with the advertise-peer-as parameter on R2 and R3.
D. Configure the BGP group with the as-override parameter on R1 and R4
Answer: A,B
The advertise-peer-as parameter allows a router to advertise its peer‚s AS number as part of the AS path attribute
when sending BGP updates to other peers. This parameter is useful when two routers in the same AS need to exchange
routes through another AS, such as in the case of R1 and R4. By configuring this parameter on R1 and R4, they can
advertise each other‚s AS number to R2 and R3, respectively.
The as-override parameter allows a router to replace the AS number of its peer with its own AS number when
receiving BGP updates from that peer. This parameter is useful when two routers in different ASes need to exchange
routes through another AS that has the same AS number as one of them, such as in the case of R2 and R3. By
configuring this parameter on R2 and R3, they can override the AS number of R1 and R4 with their own AS number
when sending BGP updates to each other.
Question: 122
You want to ensure that L1 IS-IS routers have only the most specific routes available from L2 IS-IS routers.
Which action accomplishes this task?
A. Configure the ignore-attached-bit parameter on all L2 routers.
B. Configure all routers to allow wide metrics.
C. Configure all routers to be L1.
D. Configure the ignore-attached-bit parameter on all L1 routers
Answer: D
The attached bit is a flag in an IS-IS LSP that indicates whether a router is connected to another area or level (L2) of
the network. By default, L2 routers set this bit when they advertise their LSPs to L1 routers, and L1 routers use this bit
to select a default route to reach other areas or levels through L2 routers. However, this may result in suboptimal
routing if there are multiple L2 routers with different paths to other areas or levels. To ensure that L1 routers have only
the most specific routes available from L2 routers, you can configure the ignore-attached-bit parameter on all L1
routers. This makes L1 routers ignore the attached bit and install all interarea routes learned from L2 routers in their
routing tables.
Question: 1
CE-1 must advertise ten subnets to PE-1 using BGP Once CE-1 starts advertising the subnets to PE-1, the BGP
peering state changes to Active.
Referring to the CLI output shown in the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. CE-1 is advertising its entire routing table.
B. CE-1 is configured with an incorrect peer AS
C. The prefix limit has been reached on PE-1
D. CE-1 is unreachable
Answer: B
The problem in this scenario is that CE-1 is configured with an incorrect peer AS number for its BGP session with PE-
1. The CLI output shows that CE-1 is using AS 65531 as its local AS number and AS 65530 as its peer AS number.
However, PE-1 is using AS 65530 as its local AS number and AS 65531 as its peer AS number. This causes a
mismatch in the BGP OPEN messages and prevents the BGP session from being established. To solve this problem,
CE-1 should configure its peer AS number as 65530 under [edit protocols bgp group external] hierarchy level.
Question: 124
By default, which statement is correct about OSPF summary LSAs?
A. All Type 2 and Type 7 LSAs will be summanzed into a single Type 5 LSA
B. The area-range command must be installed on all routers.
C. Type 3 LSAs are advertised for routes in Type 1 LSAs.
D. The metric associated with a summary route will be equal to the lowest metric associated with an individual
contributing route
Answer: C
OSPF uses different types of LSAs to describe different aspects of the network topology. Type 1 LSAs are also known
as router LSAs, and they describe the links and interfaces of a router within an area. Type 3 LSAs are also known as
summary LSAs, and they describe routes to networks outside an area but within the same autonomous system (AS).
By default, OSPF will summarize routes from Type 1 LSAs into Type 3 LSAs when advertising them across area
Question: 125
When building an interprovider VPN, you notice on the PE router that you have hidden routes which are received
from your BGP peer with family inet labeled-unica3t configured.
Which parameter must you configure to solve this problem?
A. Under the family inet labeled-unicast hierarchy, add the explicit null parameter.
B. Under the protocols ospf hierarchy, add the traffic-engineering parameter.
C. Under the family inet labeled-unicast hierarchy, add the resolve-vpn parameter.
D. Under the protocols mpls hierarchy, add the traffic-engineering parameter
Answer: C
The resolve-vpn parameter is a BGP option that allows a router to resolve labeled VPN-IPv4 routes using unlabeled
IPv4 routes received from another BGP peer with family inet labeled-unicast configured. This option enables
interprovider VPNs without requiring MPLS labels between ASBRs or using VRF tables on ASBRs. In this scenario,
you need to configure the resolve-vpn parameter under [edit protocols bgp group external family inet labeled-unicast]
hierarchy level on both ASBRs.
Question: 126
Which two EVPN route types are used to advertise a multihomed Ethernet segment? (Choose two )
A. Type 1
B. Type 3
C. Type 4
D. Type 2
Answer: A,C
EVPN is a solution that provides Ethernet multipoint services over MPLS networks. EVPN uses BGP to distribute
endpoint provisioning information and set up pseudowires between PE devices. EVPN uses different route types to
convey different information in the control plane.
The following are the main EVPN route types:
‚ Type 1 - Ethernet Auto-Discovery Route: This route type is used for network-wide messaging and discovery of other
PE devices that are part of the same EVPN instance. It also carries information about the redundancy mode and load
balancing algorithm of the PE devices.
‚ Type 2 - MAC/IP Advertisement Route: This route type is used for MAC and IP address learning and advertisement
between PE devices. It also carries information about the Ethernet segment identifier (ESI) and the label for
forwarding traffic to the MAC or IP address.
‚ Type 3 - Inclusive Multicast Ethernet Tag Route: This route type is used for broadcast, unknown unicast, and
multicast (BUM) traffic forwarding. It also carries information about the multicast group and the label for forwarding
BUM traffic.
‚ Type 4 - Ethernet Segment Route: This route type is used for multihoming scenarios, where a CE device is connected
to more than one PE device. It also carries information about the ESI and the designated forwarder (DF) election
Question: 1
A network designer would like to create a summary route as shown in the exhibit, but the configuration is not working.
Which three configuration changes will create a summary route? (Choose three.)
A. set policy-options policy-statement leak-v6 term DC-routes then reject
B. delete policy-options policy-statement leak-v6 term DC-routes from route-filter 2001: db9:a: fa00 : :/6l longer
C. set policy‚options policy-statement leak-v term DC‚routes from route-filter 2001:db9:a:faOO::/61 exact
D. delete protocols isis export summary-v6
E. set protocols isis import summary-v6
Answer: A,B,C,D
To create a summary route for IS-IS, you need to configure a policy statement that matches the prefixes to be
summarized and sets the next-hop to discard. You also need to configure a summary-address statement under the IS-
IS protocol hierarchy that references the policy statement. In this case, the policy statement leak-v6 is trying to match
the prefix 2001:db9:a:fa00::/61 exactly, but this prefix is not advertised by any router in the network. Therefore, no
summary route is created. To fix this, you need to delete the longer keyword from the route-filter term and change the
prefix length to /61 exact. This will match any prefix that falls within the /61 range. You also need to delete the export
statement under protocols isis, because this will export all routes that match the policy statement to other IS-IS routers,
which is not desired for a summary route.
Question: 128
An interface is configured with a behavior aggregate classifier and a multifield classifier How will the packet be
processed when received on this interface?
A. The packet will be discarded.
B. The packet will be processed by the BA classifier first, then the MF classifier.
C. The packet will be forwarded with no classification changes.
D. The packet will be processed by the MF classifier first, then the BA classifier.
Answer: C
behavior aggregate (BA) classifiers and multifield (MF) classifiers are two types of classifiers that are used to assign
packets to a forwarding class and a loss priority based on different criteria. The forwarding class determines the output
queue for a packet. The loss priority is used by a scheduler to control packet discard during periods of congestion.
A BA classifier maps packets to a forwarding class and a loss priority based on a fixed-length field in the packet
header, such as DSCP, IP precedence, MPLS EXP, or IEEE
Question: 1
A network is using IS-IS for routing.
In this scenario, why are there two TLVs shown in the exhibit?
A. There are both narrow and wide metric devices in the topology
B. The interface specified a metric of 100 for L2.
C. Wide metrics have specifically been requested
D. Both IPv4 and IPv6 are being used in the topology
Answer: A
TLVs are tuples of (Type, Length, Value) that can be advertised in IS-IS packets. TLVs can carry different kinds of
information in the Link State Packets (LSPs). IS-IS supports both narrow and wide metrics for link costs. Narrow
metrics use a single octet to encode the link cost, while wide metrics use three octets. Narrow metrics have a
maximum value of 63, while wide metrics have a maximum value of 16777215. If there are both narrow and wide
metric devices in the topology, IS-IS will advertise two TLVs for each link: one with the narrow metric and one with
the wide metric. This allows backward compatibility with older devices that only support narrow metrics12.
Question: 130
In IS-IS, which two statements are correct about the designated intermediate system (DIS) on a multi-access network
segment? (Choose two)
A. A router with a priority of 10 wins the DIS election over a router with a priority of 1.
B. A router with a priority of 1 wins the DIS election over a router with a priority of 10.
C. On the multi-access network, each router forms an adjacency to every other router on the segment
D. On the multi-access network, each router only forms an adjacency to the DI
Answer: A,D
In IS-IS, a designated intermediate system (DIS) is a router that is elected on a multi-access network segment (such as
Ethernet) to perform some functions on behalf of other routers on the same segment. A DIS is responsible for sending
network link-state advertisements (LSPs), which describe all the routers attached to the network. These LSPs are
flooded throughout a single area. A DIS also generates pseudonode LSPs, which represent the multi-access network as
a single node in the link-state database. A DIS election is based on the priority value configured on each router‚s
interface connected to the multi-access network. The priority value ranges from 0 to 127, with higher values indicating
higher priority. The router with the highest priority becomes the DIS for the area (Level 1, Level 2, or both). If routers
have the same priority, then the router with the highest MAC address is elected as the DIS. By default, routers have a
priority value of 64. On a multi-access network, each router only forms an adjacency to the DIS, not to every other
router on the segment. This reduces the amount of hello packets and LSP
Question: 1
You are attempting to summarize routes from the IP block on R8 to AS 64500. You implement the
export policy shown in the exhibit and all routes from the routing table stop being advertised.
In this scenario, which two steps would you take to summarize the route in BGP? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the from protocol bgp command from the export policy.
B. Add the set protocols bgp family inet unicast add-path command to allow additional routes to the RIB tables.
C. Add the set routing-options static route discard command.
D. Replace exact in the export policy with orlonger.
Answer: A,C,D
To summarize routes from the IP block on R8 to AS 64500, you need to do the following:
‚ Add the set routing-options static route discard command. This creates a static route for the
summary prefix and discards any traffic destined to it. This is necessary because BGP can only advertise routes that
are present in the routing table.
‚ Replace exact in the export policy with orlonger. This allows R8 to match and advertise any route that is equal or
more specific than the summary prefix. The exact term only matches routes that are exactly equal to the summary
prefix, which is not present in the routing table.
Question: 1
You must ensure that the VPN backbone is preferred over the back door intra-area link as long as the VPN is
available. Referring to the exhibit, which action will accomplish this task?
A. Configure an import routing policy on the CE routers that rejects OSPF routes learned on the backup intra-area link.
B. Enable OSPF traffic-engineering.
C. Configure the OSPF metric on the backup intra-area link that is higher than the L3VPN
D. Create an OSPF sham link between the PE routers.
Answer: D
A sham link is a logical link between two PE routers that belong to the same OSPF area but are connected through an
L3VPN. A sham link makes the PE routers appear as if they are directly connected, and prevents OSPF from preferring
an intra-area back door link over the VPN backbone. To create a sham link, you need to configure the local and
remote addresses of the PE routers under the [edit protocols ospf area area-id] hierarchy level1.
Which two statements about the output shown in the exhibit are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The PE is attached to a single local site.
B. The connection has not flapped since it was initiated.
C. There has been a VLAN ID mismatch.
D. The PE router has the capability to pop flow labels
Answer: A,D
According to 1 and 2, BGP Layer 2 VPNs use BGP to distribute endpoint provisioning information and set up
pseudowires between PE devices. BGP uses the Layer 2 VPN (L2VPN) Routing Information Base (RIB) to store
endpoint provisioning information, which is updated each time any Layer 2 virtual forwarding instance (VFI) is
configured. The prefix and path information is stored in the L2VPN database, which allows BGP to make decisions
about the best path.
In the output shown in the exhibit, we can see some information about the L2VPN RIB and the pseudowire state.
Based on this information, we can infer the following statements:
‚ The PE is attached to a single local site. This is correct because the output shows only one local site ID (1) under the
L2VPN RIB section. A local site ID is a unique identifier for a site within a VPLS domain. If there were multiple local
sites attached to the PE, we would see multiple local site IDs with different prefixes.
‚ The connection has not flapped since it was initiated. This is correct because the output shows that the uptime of the
pseudowire is equal to its total uptime (1w6d). This means that the pseudowire has been up for one week and six days
without any interruption or flap.
‚ There has been a VLAN ID mismatch. This is not correct because the output shows that the remote and local VLAN
IDs are both 0 under the pseudowire state section. A VLAN ID mismatch occurs when the remote and local VLAN
IDs are different, which can cause traffic loss or misdelivery. If there was a VLAN ID mismatch, we would see
different values for the remote and local VLAN IDs.
‚ The PE router has the capability to pop flow labels. This is correct because the output shows that the flow label pop
bit is set under the pseudowire state section. The flow label pop bit indicates that the PE router can pop (remove) the
MPLS flow label from the packet before forwarding it to the CE device. The flow label is an optional MPLS label that
can be used for load balancing or traffic engineering purposes.

Juniper Professional exam contents - BingNews https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/JN0-664 Search results Juniper Professional exam contents - BingNews https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/JN0-664 https://killexams.com/exam_list/Juniper Project Management Professional (PMP)¬ģ exam Preparation
Quick Facts
Online Yes
Format Instructor-led
Course Fee $1,195
CEUs 3.5
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Two times per year
Time to Complete
90-day access
You should already be familiar with the content of the PMBOK¬ģ Guide before enrolling. If you feel like you need a refresher on the content of the PMBOK¬ģ Guide, taking the Project Management Essentials course first is strongly suggested.

PMP¬ģ exam Preparation is an in-depth, live, virtual course offered by Purdue University Online. This course follows our Project Management Essentials course. Some learners also complete the Agile Certificate Online Course before taking this exam preparation course.

This course offering assumes you qualify to take the PMP exam according to Project Management Institute (PMI) criteria, which includes being an experienced project manager (minimum 36 months of experience leading projects within the past eight years, with a four-year degree).

The PMP exam also requires you to have 35 hours of project management education, which this course fulfills.

You should already be familiar with the content of the PMBOK¬ģ Guide before enrolling. If you feel like you need a refresher on the content of the PMBOK¬ģ Guide, taking the Project Management Essentials course first is strongly suggested.


To learn more about Purdue University‚Äôs online PMP¬ģ exam Preparation course and , fill out this form. You can also call (888) 390-0499 to speak to one of our program advisors.

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PMP exam Preparation is a live, virtual course based on the PMBOK¬ģ Guide.

Enrollment includes 90-day access to all of the course material, which is 100% aligned to the Project Management Institute‚Äôs PMP¬ģ exam Prep content. Purdue also provides complimentary 90-day access to the PMtraining‚ĄĘ online VCE exam website (a $59 value).


PMI’s PMP exam consists of 180 multiple-choice, multiple response, matching, hotspot and limited fill-in-the-blank questions. The exam is demanding and learners must engage in independent study following the course to pass.

Only individuals who pass PMI‚Äôs PMP exam are officially certified as a Project Management Professional¬ģ. A certificate of achievement from Purdue University, however, is awarded to learners who successfully complete the PMP exam prep course.

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Professional Engineering Exam

As a licensed Professional Engineer, or PE, you can expect many more benefits when compared to other engineers; most employers offer higher salaries and greater opportunities for advancement to PE's. Only PE's can consult in private practice, and seal company documents to be sent to the government. PEs also have more credibility as expert witnesses in court than most engineers.

Steps in obtaining a PE license:

  • Pass the Fundamentals of Engineering (FE) Exam.
  • Graduate with a bachelor's degree from an ABET accredited engineering curriculum (all Engineering curricula at Michigan Tech except Robotics Engineering).
  • Gain four years of engineering experience under the supervision of a registered professional engineer.
  • Pass the Principles and Practice of Engineering (PE) Exam.

During your senior year you should take the Fundamentals of Engineering (FE) exam, which is required prior to sitting for the Professional Engineers (PE) Exam. Some requirements vary by state.

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CISSP Certification Requirements And Cost

Editorial Note: We earn a commission from partner links on Forbes Advisor. Commissions do not affect our editors' opinions or evaluations.

The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP¬ģ) credential demonstrates mastery of developing and overseeing large-scale cybersecurity programs. When it comes to the best cybersecurity certifications, many consider CISSP the industry‚Äôs gold standard. Individuals who meet CISSP requirements can earn the certification and qualify to take on more professional responsibility in their cybersecurity jobs.

This guide offers information on CISSP certification requirements, including experience, suggested preparation times and CISSP certification exam costs.

What Is CISSP Certification?

CISSP certification, offered by (ISC)², is an advanced credential for information systems and cybersecurity professionals. This certification highlights an individual’s ability to create, deploy and manage cybersecurity efforts for large organizations.

CISSP certification requirements include a significant amount of professional experience and passing a lengthy exam. This credential suits experienced workers over entry-level and mid-level professionals.

Though this certification is not required by employers, it can boost candidates’ earning power and help them qualify for advanced roles in information security. CISSPs often work in positions like chief information security officer (CISO), network architect, security auditor and security manager, among others.

CISSP Certification Requirements

Aspiring CISSPs should familiarize themselves with the certification’s requirements before pursuing this credential.

Gain Experience

CISSP certification requirements stipulate that each candidate must have a minimum of five years of relevant professional experience. (ISC)² specifies eight security domains:

  • Domain 1: Security and risk management
  • Domain 2: Asset security
  • Domain 3: Security architecture and engineering
  • Domain 4: Communication and network security
  • Domain 5: Identity and access management
  • Domain 6: Security assessment and testing
  • Domain 7: Security operations
  • Domain 8: Software development security

Prospective CISSPs must accumulate experience in two of the eight domains to meet CISSP certification requirements. They can also apply (ISC)²-approved four-year college degrees and other credentials, which may qualify as a year of experience. Paid and unpaid internships also count toward the CISSP requirement.

Pass the Certification Exam

The CISSP exam covers the eight domains of security in a four-hour test comprising 125 to 175 required responses. These appear as multiple-choice questions and advanced innovative items. Test-takers must earn a 700 out of 1,000 to pass. Candidates register to take the exam with Pearson VUE.

Get Endorsed

After passing the exam, individuals can apply for endorsement online. The endorsement must come from an (ISC)²-certified professional who can advocate for your professional experience as a credential-holder in good standing. Individuals must receive endorsements within nine months of passing the exam.

Cost of Becoming a CISSP

Earning CISSP certification can deliver many professional benefits, but individuals should also understand the costs associated with pursuing the credential. Along with the required time investment, consider the following CISSP certification exam costs and any required payments relating to preparation and recertification.

CISSP Certification exam Prep

Many organizations offer prep courses for the CISSP certification exam, and their costs vary drastically. Make sure to include exam prep costs, which may range from a few hundred dollars to a few thousand, in your CISSP budget. (ISC)² offers several exam prep methods, including self-paced, instructor-led and team-based options.

CISSP Certification exam Cost

The CISSP certification exam costs $749. Individuals can receive vouchers from partner organizations after completing CISSP exam training courses.

Recertification Cost

Individuals must meet CISSP recertification requirements every three years to maintain their credentials. Each certification holder must earn 120 continuing professional education (CPE) credits over this three-year period. Costs relating to CPEs can vary significantly, but each certified individual must pay an annual $125 fee to (ISC)².

Common Careers for CISSPs

Individuals who have met CISSP requirements and earned their credentials can pursue work in many information security and cybersecurity roles. As of 2023, the number of open cybersecurity roles far outpaces the number of qualified professionals, indicating strong continued demand in the sector.

We sourced salary information for this section from Payscale.

Data from Cyberseek.org indicates that among current cybersecurity openings requiring certification, CISSP ranks as the most in-demand credential. The following section explores roles for CISSP certification-holders.

Chief Information Security Officer

Average Annual Salary: Around $173,500
Required Education: Bachelor’s degree in cybersecurity, information security or a related field; master’s preferred
Job Description: CISOs rank among the top positions in information security for responsibility and salary. This C-suite role reports directly to the CEO and requires significant experience, practical skills and expertise in information security.

CISOs oversee their organizations‚Äô information security efforts. Often referred to as ‚Äúchief security officers,‚ÄĚ they supervise teams of infosec workers, set organizational directives, establish company-wide best practices and manage resource allotment. CISOs working in large, international businesses may interact with government agencies and congresspeople to ensure compliance with legal standards for information security.

Information Technology Director

Average Annual Salary: Around $125,000
Required Education: Bachelor’s degree in computer science or related field, MBA degree often preferred
Job Description: IT directors oversee departments of IT workers and manage organizations’ computer systems operations. They provide solutions to companies’ computer-related issues, including software upgrades, security concerns and general technical issues. IT directors communicate with executives to ensure company-wide directives are carried out successfully.

These directors research new IT software and hardware to keep their organizations up to date and safe. They track metrics for managing IT professionals, along with storage, hardware and software. IT directors also handle employee schedules and budget planning. As department heads, they must possess strong communication skills to interact with mid-level professionals and C-suite executives.

Security Analyst

Average Annual Salary: Around $73,500
Required Education: Bachelor’s degree in cybersecurity, computer and information technology or a related field
Job Description: Security analysts work in computer systems, networks and information security departments to prevent, monitor and respond to security breaches. This broad professional title refers to workers who handle a variety of tasks in computer and network security.

These professionals work in many industries as ‚Äúfirst responders‚ÄĚ for cyberattacks. They must demonstrate deep knowledge of hardware, software and data storage to understand potential vulnerabilities and security solutions. Security analysts may help design security systems and handle encryption efforts for businesses to protect sensitive information.

Network Architect

Average Annual Salary: Around $126,000
Required Education: Bachelor’s degree in network engineering or a related field; master’s in cybersecurity or a related field often preferred
Job Description: Network architects design and implement organizations’ security infrastructures. These professionals test and analyze existing safety structures to identify vulnerabilities and improvements. They install and maintain computer systems, including interconnected devices like firewalls and routers.

Before deploying any updates or upgrades, these information security professionals create models to test their networks in a controlled environment. Modeling allows network architects to forecast security and traffic issues before implementing their infrastructures in the real world. They also train and educate IT workers on organizational best practices.

Frequently Asked Questions About CISSP Requirements

What are the requirements to become CISSP-certified?

The two primary CISSP requirements are passing the exam and gaining five years of relevant professional experience.

No. CISSP certification suits experienced cybersecurity and information security professionals, requiring a minimum of five years of experience in the field.

Mon, 01 Jan 2024 01:12:00 -0600 Matt Whittle en-US text/html https://www.forbes.com/advisor/education/cissp-certification-requirements/
GRE Testing GRE

The GRE (Graduate Record Examination) revised General Test, introduced in August 2011, features a new test-taker friendly design and new question types. It more closely reflects the kind of thinking you'll do in graduate or business school and demonstrates that you are ready for graduate-level work. Skills are assessed in the areas of verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, and analytical writing.

Prices/fees are subject to change without notice.

Establishing Connection...

Sat, 14 May 2022 00:11:00 -0500 en text/html https://ung.edu/testing/gre.php
How Juniper is using AI in SD-WAN to differentiate itself

This week Juniper Networks announced that its Mist cloud and AI engine can be used to manage its SD-WAN solution. Juniper, historically a front-line wide-area network vendor, bolstered its router portfolio with the $450 million acquisition of 128 Technology (128T). 

The SD-WAN landscape is very crowded, but 128T took a different approach to solve the problem of using the internet as a business network. Its Session Smart Router (SSR) changes the way packets route on a network. 

128T was founded by the same leadership team that founded Acme Packet, which did something similar with voice and video traffic.  

AI starts with Mist at Juniper 

The AI capabilities came to Juniper via the 2019 acquisition of Mist Systems. Prior to Mist, Juniper's enterprise business was floundering with no real differentiator. Since then, Juniper has used Mist as the cornerstone of its enterprise strategy, and the results have paid off with that segment of its business showing continued growth as well as improved positioning in Gartner's Magic Quadrant. 

In late 2020, Juniper brought Mist Assurance to the 128T WAN suite. This lets customers address typical "day-two" issues, including anomaly detection, AI-based troubleshooting, and predictive insights. The idea of "day-two" problems refers to all of the critical, but often forgotten, problems an organization faces once an application is in production. This release addresses "day-one" operations that include initial configuration, provisioning, and deployment. Current customers would be using 128T's Smart Conduction platform, which is a good tool but does not have the sophistication of Mist. Also, Conductor is an on-premises product while Mist is cloud-based, which better addresses a world that is becoming increasingly dynamic and distributed.  

Customers can use Mist across the Juniper enterprise portfolio 

This release also makes it easier for customers to move to an all-Juniper network if they so choose, because Mist already works with the company's wired and wireless portfolio. The unification of the data from wired-wireless-WAN addresses the challenge of managing user experience. Historically, each portion of the network was managed in isolation, which worked fine in a world where applications and data resided on-premises, often in the same location as the user. As more and more workloads have migrated together, understanding user experience requires an understanding of the end-to-end network making siloed management ineffective. 

New security capabilities coming to the branch 

In addition to the day-one operational capabilities, Juniper added new branch security capabilities, which include IDS/IPS and URL filtering. The embedded security capabilities obviate the need for extra appliances, simplifying the typical complexity found in a branch. While IDS, IPS, and URL filtering isn't a holistic security stack, they do address the needs of most branches. More sophisticated customers would likely deploy separate appliances if they are looking for advanced capabilities. 

Juniper also unveiled two new cloud-managed SD-WAN gateways. The SSR120 and SSR130 are designed for small and mid-size branches. Like the larger SSR1000 line, which is designed more for head-end scale, the two smaller products offer multiple WAN link options that include LTE, which is becoming increasingly attractive as a backup connection. 5G will usher in the era of cellular first connectivity to branch offices and using LTE now as a backup is a good way to try operating a wireless WAN. 

This product release is an important one for Juniper because it has typically played second or even third fiddle to Cisco and HPE-Aruba. The Mist-ification of Juniper combined with 128T in the WAN and Apstra in the data center has given the company a solid set of products to compete more effectively. 

The fundamental tenet of my research has always been that share gains happen when markets transition and the network industry is rapidly shifting to AI-based platforms. Obviously, there is more to success than having good products, but Mist provides Juniper a solid platform upon which to continue building its enterprise products.

Wed, 19 Jan 2022 06:12:00 -0600 en text/html https://www.zdnet.com/paid-content/article/how-juniper-is-using-ai-in-sd-wan-to-differentiate-itself/ NextGen Bar Exam: What to Know No result found, try new keyword!which develops bar exam content for 54 U.S. jurisdictions. "So the public can have confidence in a professional's proven ability to show proficiency to represent them." For decades, there has been ... Wed, 15 Feb 2023 03:47:00 -0600 https://www.usnews.com/education/best-graduate-schools/top-law-schools/applying/articles/nextgen-bar-exam-what-to-know Doctoral Candidacy Examination Instructions

All students participating in a Master of Science or Doctor of Philosophy degree program must complete a thesis or dissertation proposal for approval by the members of the student's steering committee. The major professor and each of the graduate steering committee members must approve the proposal using the Graduate School's proposal approval form. MS thesis proposals should generally be completed two semesters prior to defense of the thesis; PhD dissertation proposals must be completed to achieve candidacy (in concert or in parallel with the candidacy examination process). Each Department/Program may have requirements that exceed those specified broadly in this policy; however, they must be consistent with the Graduate School's requirements. Departmental requirements beyond the minimum stated here must be specified in writing and submitted to the Graduate School as well as listed in departmental web pages. It is the responsibility of the student to be aware of, and comply with, all Graduate School and Departmental dissertation proposal requirements.

The objectives of this examination are to confirm the student's breadth and depth of knowledge in their chosen field of study as well as the student's understanding of the scientific process. The doctoral candidacy examination should be administered upon completion of the majority of coursework, and successful completion of the exam signifies readiness to undertake the research and dissertation component of the doctoral program. This examination must be taken within three years from the first date of matriculation, and at least one year prior to the dissertation defense.

Upon the recommendation of the appropriate Department Chairperson, the Associate Provost for Instruction and Office of the Graduate School appoints the doctoral candidacy examination committee consisting of the student's major professor, the student's steering committee and an additional faculty member from an appropriate area. Additionally, the Associate Provost for Instruction and Office of the Graduate School appoints a committee chair who is not from the department of the student's degree program. The role of the examination committee chair is to manage the examination, ensure its integrity and represent the interests of the faculty and student.

The examination must have both written and oral components, described below.

Written Examination

The purpose of the written exam is to assess the readiness of the student to move beyond the coursework stage of the doctoral program, into the development of a substantial research project and dissertation. Traditionally, questioning should verify sufficient breadth and depth of knowledge to successfully undertake such research, and then communicate the results in a scholarly manner appropriate to the discipline.

To initiate the examination process, the examining committee shall convene at a planning meeting with the student. During the first part of the planning meeting, the committee determines the form and schedule for the process and establishes the date for the oral component (reported on form 6E). The student is then excused from the meeting and the committee develops and discusses the exam content. There are three alternative forms for the written component, as follows:

  • Form 1: Each member of the committee (excluding the chair) submits one distinct question, set of questions, or problem related to the objectives of the exam. The questions are discussed and agreed upon at the planning meeting. The major professor administers the written examination. Typically, each question or set of questions must be completed within a prescribed period of time, not to exceed approximately 8 hours each, with additional time permitted for reasonable breaks, meals, etc.. No more than one question or set of questions should be administered per 24 hours. Upon completion by the student, the examination questions are reviewed and graded by the committee members who prepared them. The committee then collectively reviews the entire examination.

  • Form 2: The student prepares a written report on a syllabu or problem assigned collectively by the examining committee as a whole. The syllabu or problem must meet the objectives of the examination and its content cannot be directly related to the student's dissertation research topic. The student has approximately one month to develop a thorough understanding of the assigned syllabu and prepare a written report. The report is reviewed by the committee members and committee chair.

  • Form 3: The student prepares and defends a written proposal of future research likely to be carried out during their Ph.D. project. This research prospectus must be presented to the examining committee two weeks prior to the oral candidacy exam and should include preliminary studies supporting the feasibility of the proposed research. The exam will test the candidate's understanding of concepts directly related to his or her immediate area of research, knowledge of prior related research that has been conducted by others, their ability to design and interpret experiments in this area, and capacity to think and write independently and to present work plans orally in a clear and rational manner. The report is reviewed by the committee members and committee chair.¬†Form 3 is available¬†only¬†to doctoral students in the Department of Chemistry and Environmental Resources Engineering.

At least 3 business days prior to the oral exam, the major professor shall confirm with the chair of the examining committee that the oral examination should proceed as scheduled. The written exam is thus considered to be "provisionally successful." If the written examination component does not meet the standards established for the candidacy exam, the committee has two options.

  1. If the deficiencies are relatively minor, or in the case of Form 1, limited to a minority of the written questions, the oral exam may be postponed by the Office of the Graduate School at the recommendation of the chair of the exam committee. The student may then be provided with an additional time period, the length of which should be determined by the full examination committee in consultation with the chair, to address deficiencies identified in the written examination. This time period should be no less than 8 hours (typically for Form 1), and may extend up to 5 business days for Forms 2 and 3. This action is treated as a suspension and extension of the written exam "in progress," and, if ultimately successful, does not constitute a failure of the entire exam, nor count toward the limited number of attempts prescribed by Graduate School policy below.

  2. If the deficiencies are severe, the major professor, in consultation with the examination committee may decide to fail the candidate without performing the oral component. This latter action does constitute a failure of the candidacy exam in its entirety, and does count toward the limited number of attempts prescribed by Graduate School policy below.

Oral Examination

The purpose of the oral examination is to further confirm the fitness of the student to apply the skills and knowledge acquired to date toward a successful and significant research project. The oral examination provides the opportunity for the student to demonstrate their ability to think synthetically and critically in a manner conveying their readiness to commence the dissertation project.

The oral component of the candidacy examination is typically scheduled for a period of approximately two hours, and is broken in to two distinct rounds of questioning. The first round, lasting approximately 60 minutes, consists of questions from each of the members of the examination committee, including the chair should they choose to contribute questions. Time should be shared equitably among the questioners, with interjections or interruptions by other questioners prohibited during the first round. The second round of questions may be more flexibly structured, with broader discussion and interchange among questioners is encouraged.

Any member of the faculty may be a silent observer for the oral component. The candidate may also invite a silent student observer to attend the oral examination. At the completion of the oral examination, the candidate and observers are excused from the room and the examination committee determines whether the student has successfully completed the oral component of the exam and achieved the status of "doctoral candidate." The committee chair has the option to vote. Unanimous agreement is required to pass the student on the first attempt. If less than unanimous agreement is reached, the student is considered to have failed the first candidacy examination. A student who fails the first candidacy exam may request a second exam, which must take place no more than one year from the date of the first examination. The second candidacy examination may, or may not include a new written component, at the discretion of the student's major professor and examination committee, in consultation with the examination chair. At the second exam, the student has passed if there is not more than one negative vote. A student who is determined to have failed the second candidacy examination is terminated from the doctoral program.

Scheduling the Candidacy Exam

To schedule a doctoral candidacy examination, the student should complete the following steps:

  1. In consultation with your major professor, complete Form 6B for your Department Chairperson to review, sign, and forward to the Office of Instruction and Graduate Studies. Form 6B should be submitted according to the academic year deadlines for defense exams.

  2. The Associate Provost for Instruction and Office of the Graduate School will assign a faculty member outside of your degree program to serve as chair of your examination committee. When you receive a copy of Form 6C which officially appoints your examination committee, you must consult with all members of your committee (major professor, steering committee, additional examiner, and defense chair) to arrange a mutually convenient date, time, and location for a planning meeting.

  3. You must inform the Office of Instruction and Graduate Studies of the agreed upon date, time, and location for your planning meeting at least two weeks in advance of the date. This Office will confirm in Form 6D these arrangements with all concerned individuals.

  4. At the planning meeting, your exam chair and the committee complete Form 6E, the committee chair will sign it and return it to the Office of Instruction and Graduate Studies, which will distribute copies to you and the committee.

  5. If you are using Form 1 of the examination, you and your major professor should arrange for a time and location to administer the questions.

  6. The last step is to meet with your committee and complete the oral examination at the designated date. At the end of the oral examination, your committee will ask you and any observers to leave the room while it determines if you have satisfactorily completed the doctoral candidacy examination. You will be invited back to receive the decision of the committee which will also be reported on Form 6F and returned by the exam chair to the Office of Instruction and Graduate Studies.

Thu, 25 Aug 2022 07:07:00 -0500 en text/html https://www.esf.edu/graduate/programs/docexam.php
15,750 teachers sit for PQE Professional Qualifying Examination No result found, try new keyword!it‚Äôs testing the professional knowledge of the teaching profession,‚ÄĚ she said. Ezeahurukwe said that the qualifying examination provided the content at the foundational knowledge that a ... Fri, 24 Nov 2023 10:00:00 -0600 en-us text/html https://www.msn.com/ Guidance in Preparing for FE exam - Computer Based Testing

In our ERE Department we prepare students to obtain professional engineering licensure and enter professional practice. Our curriculum provides the core engineering and applied science courses needed to obtain licensure, including a course on the Fundamentals of Engineering (FE) exam, the first of two exams needed for licensure. This website provides guidance on how to register for the FE exam, which became computer based in 2014. Other resources are available to help students study to pass the FE exam, including the NCEES approved FE Supplied Reference Handbook.

To sit for the computer based FE exam, you must register and pay for the FE exam directly with NCEES. Computer based testing for the FE exam and the specifications for FE exam content are posted by NCEES online.

NYS professional engineering licensure details are provided by the New York State Education Department (NYSED).

An overview of the process:

  • Exam Eligibility. Students who are within twenty (20) semester hours of graduation, or have graduated, automatically qualify for direct admission to the NCEES FE examination (FE). This is in accordance with NYS law, as ERE students are in a baccalaureate program registered by the Engineering Accreditation Commission (EAC) of the Accreditation Board for Engineering and Technology (ABET) and the New York State Education Department (NYSED)
  • Exam Registration. Students register, schedule and pay for their FE exam directly with NCEES. This may be accomplished through the¬†NCEES website at www.ncees.org¬†The NCEES registration for the computer based FE exam is open year round, starting November 4, 2013. Registration includes a fee to NCEES.
  • NYS Licensure Registration. Students submit a notarized¬†Form 1, with the $70 fee, to NYSED in Albany, NY. Students submit¬†Form 2, with Section I completed, to ERE's secretary Teri Frese, 402 Baker Labs. We append Form 2 information to single institutional Form 20 F, and this form is certified and sent to NYSED when the students have graduated. Students interested in licensure in states other than NY need to contact those states for guidance on required forms.
  • Exam Dates. The computer based FE exam is offered in four testing windows throughout the year. The four windows will be two months in duration with one month off between each window, starting January 2014.
  • Exam Locations. The computer based FE exam administration locations are at NCEES approved Pearson VUE Testing Centers. For more detailed information on the new computer based FE exam, including exam length, specifications, reference material, approved calculators, and location of test centers, please visit the¬†NCEES website.
  • Exam Completion. Students and NYSED will receive notification of their FE exam result directly through the NCEES website.
  • Intern Engineer Certificates. ERE students who pass the FE exam and graduate from our EAC/ABET licensure qualifying program, Environmental Resources Engineering, are eligible to apply to NYSED for the release of their Intern Engineer Certificate.

Notes: If you have passed the FE exam but not graduated, NYSED may send you correspondence indicating your application is incomplete. In such cases, when the certified Form 20 F is sent to NYSED by ESF the application is complete. Form 20 F is submitted as a single, certified, institutional document to NYSED to streamline the education verification process. Form 20 F is the Certification of Completion of a Professionally Registered (Licensure Qualifying) Program in Engineering. Students who do not coordinate to be included in Form 20 F can, upon graduation, work with the ESF Registrar to certify and submit a student-specific Form 2 to NYSED.

Tue, 18 Aug 2020 03:56:00 -0500 en text/html https://www.esf.edu/ere/undergraduate/feguide.php

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