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Exam Code: NBSTSA-CST Practice exam 2023 by Killexams.com team
NBSTSA-CST Certified Surgical Technologist

The CST examination consists of 175 questions, 150 of which are scored. The 25 pretest items (unscored) are randomly distributed throughout the examination for the purpose of analysis and statistical evaluation. The passing score is the
minimum number of questions that must be answered correctly. Candidates should refer to nbstsa.org for the number of questions which must be answered correctly in order to obtain a passing score. Score reports are provided to all candidates who take the examination



I. PERIOPERATIVE CARE (91 items)

A. Preoperative Preparation (18 items)

- Review surgeons preference card.

- Verify availability of surgery equipment (e.g., reserve equipment for surgery).

- Don personal protective equipment.

- Utilize preoperative documentation (e.g., informed consent, advanced directives, allergies, laboratory results).

- Consider patient needs (e.g., bariatrics, geriatrics, pediatrics, immunocompromised, patient allergies).

- Prepare the operating room environment (e.g., temperature, lights, suction, wiping down the room and furniture).

- Coordinate additional equipment (e.g., bovie pad, pneumatic tourniquet, sequential compression devices, thermoregulatory devices, positioning devices).

- Obtain instruments and supplies needed for surgery.

- Perform medical hand wash.

- Check package integrity of sterile supplies.

- Open sterile supplies/instruments while maintaining aseptic technique.

- Perform surgical scrub (e.g., initial, waterless).

- Don gown and gloves.

- Assemble and set up sterile instruments and supplies for surgical procedures.

- Transport the patient to and from operating room.

- Transfer patient to operating room table.

- Apply patient safety devices (e.g., bovie pad, safety strap, protective padding, x-ray safety).

- Apply patient monitoring devices as directed.

- Participate in positioning the patient.

- Prepare surgical site (e.g., hair removal, surgical preparation).

- Gown and glove sterile team members.

- Participate in draping the patient.

- Secure cords/tubing to drapes and apply light handles.

- Drape specialty equipment (e.g., c-arm, Da Vinci, microscope).

- Participate in Universal Protocol (Time Out).



B. Intraoperative Procedures (61 items)

- Maintain aseptic technique throughout the procedure.

- Follow Standard and Universal Precautions.

- Anticipate the steps of surgical procedures.

- Perform counts with circulator at appropriate intervals.

- Verify, receive, mix, and label all medications and solutions.

- Provide intraoperative assistance under the direction of the surgeon.

- Identify different types of operative incisions.

- Identify instruments by:

- function.

- application.

- classification.

- Assemble, test, operate, and disassemble specialty equipment:

- microscopes.

- computer navigation systems.

- thermal technology.

- laser technology (e.g., helium, argon, CO2 beam coagulators).

- ultrasound technology (e.g., harmonic scalpel, phacoemulsification).

- endoscopic technology.

- power equipment.

- Assemble and maintain retractors.

- Pass instruments and supplies.

- Identify appropriate usage of sutures/needles and stapling devices.

- Prepare, pass, and cut suture material as directed.

- Provide assistance with stapling devices.

- Differentiate among the various methods and applications of hemostasis (e.g., mechanical, thermal, chemical).

- Irrigate, suction, and sponge operative site.

- Monitor medication and solution use.

- Verify with surgeon the correct type and/or size of specialty specific implantable items.

- Prepare bone and tissue grafts (e.g., allograft, autograft, synthetic).

- Verify, prepare, and label specimen(s).

- Prepare drains, catheters, and tubing for insertion.

- Observe patients intraoperative status (e.g., monitor color of blood, blood loss, patient position).

- Perform appropriate actions during an emergency.

- Initiate preventative actions in potentially harmful situations.

- Connect and activate drains to suction apparatus.

- Prepare dressings and wound site.

- Assist in the application of casts, splints, braces, and similar devices.



C. Postoperative Procedures (12 items)

- Report medication and solution amount used.

- Participate in case debrief.

- Remove drapes and other equipment (e.g., suction, cautery, instrumentation,nondisposable items) from patient.

- Report abnormal postoperative findings (e.g., bleeding at surgical site,hematoma, rash).

- Dispose of contaminated waste and drapes after surgery incompliance with Standard Precautions.

- Transfer patient from operating table to stretcher.

- Dispose of contaminated sharps after surgery in compliance with Standard Precautions.

- Perform room clean up and restock supplies.



II. ANCILLARY DUTIES (26 items)



A. Administrative and Personnel (9 items)



- Revise surgeons preference card as necessary.

- Follow proper cost containment processes.

- Utilize computer technology for:

- surgeons preference cards

- interdepartmental communication

- continuing education.

- research.

- Follow hospital and national disaster plan protocol.

- Recognize safety and environmental hazards (e.g., fire, chemical spill, laser, smoke).

- Understand basic principles of electricity and electrical safety.

- Apply ethical and legal practices related to surgical patient care.

- Use interpersonal skills (e.g., listening, diplomacy, responsiveness) and group dynamics.

- Understand the importance of cultural diversity.

- Understand concepts of death and dying.

- Participate in organ and tissue procurement.

- Serve as preceptor to perioperative personnel.



B. Equipment Sterilization and Maintenance (17 items)

- Troubleshoot equipment malfunctions.

- Decontaminate and clean instruments and equipment.

- Inspect, test, and assemble instruments and equipment.

- Sterilize instruments for immediate use (e.g., short cycle).

- Package and sterilize instruments and equipment.



III. BASIC SCIENCE (33 items)



A. Anatomy and Physiology (20 items)



- Use appropriate medical terminology and abbreviations.

- Demonstrate knowledge of anatomical systems as they relate to the surgical procedure:

- cardiovascular.

- endocrine.

- gastrointestinal.

- genitourinary.

- integumentary.

- lymphatic.

- muscular.

- neurological.

- ophthalmic.

- otorhinolaryngology.

- peripheral vascular.

- pulmonary.

- reproductive.

- skeletal.



- Demonstrate knowledge of human physiology as they relate to the surgical procedure:

- cardiovascular.

- endocrine.

- gastrointestinal.

- genitourinary.

- integumentary.

- lymphatic.

- muscular.

- neurological.

- ophthalmic.

- otorhinolaryngology.

- peripheral vascular.

- pulmonary.

- reproductive.

- skeletal.

- Identify the following surgical pathologies:

- abnormal anatomy.

- disease processes.

- malignancies.

- traumatic injuries.



B. Microbiology (6 items)

- Apply principles of surgical microbiology to operative practice:

- classification and pathogenesis of microorganisms (e.g., cultures).

- infection control procedures (e.g., aseptic technique).

- principles of tissue handling (e.g., Halsted principles, tissue manipulation methods, traction/counter traction).

- stages of, and factors influencing wound healing (e.g., condition of patient, wound type).

- surgical wound classification.

- Identify and address factors that can influence an infectious process.



C. Surgical Pharmacology (7 items)

- Apply principles of surgical pharmacology to operative practice:

- anesthesia related agents and medications.

- blood and fluid replacement.

- complications from drug interactions (e.g., malignant hyperthermia).

- methods of anesthesia administration (e.g., general, local, block).

- types, uses, action, and interactions of drugs and solution (e.g., hemostaticagents, antibiotics, IV solutions).

- weights, measures, and conversions.

- Maintain awareness of maximum dosage.

Certified Surgical Technologist
NBSTSA Technologist Practice Test
Killexams : NBSTSA Technologist VCE exam - BingNews https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/NBSTSA-CST Search results Killexams : NBSTSA Technologist VCE exam - BingNews https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/NBSTSA-CST https://killexams.com/exam_list/NBSTSA Killexams : Placement Test Practice Killexams : Placement Test Practice

Being prepared is the best way to ease the stress of test taking. If you are having difficulty scheduling your Placement Test, please contact the UNG Testing Office.

If you have a red yes in any Placement Test Required row on your Check Application Status page in Banner, read the information below relating to the area in which you have the red yes.

Establishing Connection...

Mon, 05 Dec 2022 08:03:00 -0600 en text/html https://ung.edu/learning-support/placement-test-practice.php/placement-test-practice.php
Killexams : Practice Test: Synonyms and Antonyms

Tackle these vocabulary basics in a short practice test: synonyms and antonyms. Synonyms are words that have a similar meaning, and antonyms are words with opposite meanings. Students in first and second grade will think deeply about word meaning as they search for the matching synonym or antonym in each row of this reading and writing worksheet.

View answer key

Add to collection

Add to assignment

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Subject
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Mon, 14 Aug 2023 13:30:00 -0500 en text/html https://www.education.com/worksheet/article/practice-test-synonyms-antonyms/
Killexams : Technology News

Defense lawyers say FTX founder Sam Bankman-Fried can't adequately prepare for trial in six weeks while in jail without proper access to computers, necessary medications to help him concentrate, and a better diet than bread, water and peanut butter

August 22

Tue, 29 Nov 2022 19:40:00 -0600 en text/html https://abcnews.go.com/technology
Killexams : How to Use practice questions to Study for the LSAT No result found, try new keyword!Likewise, it’s a bad idea to take the LSAT without first training with real practice tests. That said, very few athletes run daily marathons. Instead, they vary their training with shorter ... Tue, 11 Oct 2022 01:36:00 -0500 text/html https://www.usnews.com/education/blogs/law-admissions-lowdown/articles/how-to-use-practice-tests-to-study-for-the-lsat Killexams : Rapid Test Can Identify a Key Driver of Severe Asthma by Tracking Protein Signatures

A rapid sputum-based test can accurately identify the presence of white blood cells by tracking their protein signatures.

Researchers have developed a new rapid sputum-based test that can identify the presence of a key driver of severe asthma, white blood cells. A simple, rapid testing device has the potential to detect key drivers of respiratory diseases, including asthma, and would Excellerate accessibility and efficiency in identifying patients with asthma.

The full experimental study is published in Angewandte Chemie International Edition.1

In this study, researchers aimed to develop a new sputum-based lateral flow device (LFD), similar to that of a rapid COVID-19 test, that can quickly and accurately identify eosinophils in complex biological samples, such as sputum, by tracking their protein signatures.

“This is what our collaboration set out to achieve,” said John Brennan, PhD, director of McMaster University’s Biointerfaces Institute and senior study author, in a statement.2 “This test and others like it can have the kind of lasting, meaningful impact that will Excellerate or even save many lives.”

White blood cells, otherwise known as eosinophils, are known to play a role in many airways diseases, including chronic cough, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and certain forms of vasculitis and bronchiectasis. Measurements of eosinophil peroxidase (EPX) are the most abundant and specific of eosinophil cationic proteins and a reliable identifier of eosinophil number and activity.

The researchers developed a protein-targeting element known as a DNAzyme and modified it into the rapid test. Although DNAzymes have primarily been used for detecting metals or bacterial targets, the researchers believed the new platform could be adapted to identify any material of biological origin by detecting its protein signature.

A modified version of the test acted as a bridging strand to allow capture of complimentary DNA (cDNA) modified gold nanoparticles (GNPs) onto a DNA-modified test line to identify measurements of EPX.

Thirty-eight sputum samples from patients or healthy donors were obtained using saline-induction or spontaneous expectorant. Healthy donors included nonsmokers with no known respiratory disease, infection, or symptoms who had not received any vaccination in the prior 8 weeks.

To compare the rapid test results to gold standard sputum cytometry results, the sputum plugs were collected and processed to created 2 sputum samples. One of the samples was centrifuged to remove cellular debris and the other for use with the LFD.

The DNAzyme-based LFD and fluorescence assay for detection of EPX showed good resistance to mammalian nucleases and high sensitivity and selectivity against other eosinophil proteins, including eosinophil cationic protein and eosinophil-derived neurotoxin, and neutrophil proteins, including myeloperoxidase. Furthermore, these assays were validated with patient sputum levels, reaching 100% clinical sensitivity and 96% specificity within 45 minutes.

However, the researchers acknowledge that further work needs to be done to evaluate the rapid test in a clinical setting.

Parameswaran Nair, MD, PhD

“A rapid test to detect eosinophilia would help clinicians make decisions about using drugs, such as steroids or new biologics for patients with severe asthma, and other lung diseases associated with eosinophilia, such as severe cough, and COPD,” said Parameswaran Nair, MD, PhD, professor of medicine at McMaster University and co-author of the study, in a statement.2 “It would also help to limit the unnecessary use of antibiotics.”

References

1. Ali MM, Mukherjee M, Radford K, et al. A rapid sputum‐based lateral flow assay for airway eosinophilia using an RNA‐cleaving DNAzyme selected for Eosinophil peroxidase. Angew Chem Int Ed Engl. Published online July 21, 2023. doi:10.1002/anie.202307451

2. While resolving a key asthma challenge, Hamilton researchers also create a new method to detect proteins in body fluids and other materials. News release. EurekAlert! August 1, 2023. Accessed August 23, 2023. https://www.eurekalert.org/news-releases/997344

Wed, 23 Aug 2023 07:30:00 -0500 en text/html https://www.ajmc.com/view/rapid-test-can-identify-a-key-driver-of-severe-asthma-by-tracking-protein-signatures Killexams : How accurate are rapid, point-of-care tests for HIV?

Key points

  • Rapid tests are usually reliable for long-standing infections, but are sometimes unable to detect accurate HIV infections acquired in the past few weeks.
  • Many tests are based on older ‘second-generation’ technology, but a ‘fourth-generation’ test with better performance is available.
  • Like any screening test, a reactive (‘positive’) result must be confirmed with one or two follow-up tests.

Rapid tests are often referred to as point-of-care tests because rather than sending a blood sample to a laboratory, the test can be conducted and the result read in a doctor’s office or a community setting, without specialised laboratory equipment.

Most point-of-care tests require a tiny sample of blood (the fingertip is pricked with a lancet). Other tests require oral fluid (an absorbent pad is swabbed around the outer gums, adjacent to the teeth). They are called ‘rapid’ tests because the result can usually be given within a few minutes.

Most rapid tests detect HIV antibodies. They are not part of HIV itself, but are produced by the human body in response to HIV infection. In the weeks after exposure to HIV, the immune system recognises some components of the virus and begins to generate HIV antibodies in order to damage, neutralise or kill it (this period is known as ‘seroconversion’). These antibodies persist for life.

In contrast, the recommended laboratory tests also detect p24 antigen, a protein contained in HIV's viral core that can be detected sooner than antibodies. Most rapid tests, with the exception of the  Determine HIV Early Detect and Determine HIV-1/2 cannot detect p24 antigen.

The accuracy of point-of-care tests is not always equal to those of laboratory tests, especially in relation to accurate infection. This is for two main reasons:

  • What the test looks for. While one antibody/antigen test is available, the other tests look for antibodies only. Moreover, some can only detect immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies, but not immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies, which appear sooner.
  • The sample taken. Point-of-care tests are usually performed on whole blood taken from a fingerprick. This has a lower concentration of antibodies and p24 than plasma. Samples of oral fluid have a concentration of antibodies that is lower still. (Plasma is the colourless fluid part of blood, separated from whole blood using laboratory equipment. Fingerprick blood is produced by pricking the finger with a lancet, whereas oral fluid is obtained by swabbing the gums.)

As a result, the window period of commonly used rapid tests such as the  Determine HIV Early Detect and the INSTI HIV-1/HIV-2 Antibody Test may be one to two weeks longer than for fourth-generation laboratory tests. Other rapid tests, based on older technology, may have longer window periods than this.

Rapid tests can be performed by staff with limited laboratory training. However, reading the test result relies on subjective interpretation, and when the result is borderline, experienced staff give more consistently accurate results. In a setting with low prevalence of HIV, staff may not see enough true positive samples to gain experience in interpreting test results.

It is good practice for test results to be re-read by a second member of staff, within the time frame specified on the test packaging. Organisations using point-of-care tests must maintain strong links with a pathology laboratory that provides support with clinical governance and quality assurance.

When used in a population with a low prevalence of HIV, false positive results can be a problem. The tests always produce a small number of false positive results, but in a setting where very few people have HIV, the majority of apparent positive results will in fact be incorrect. However, as the proportion of people with HIV being tested increases, the true positives start to outnumber false positives. This means it is more appropriate to use point-of-care tests in high-prevalence populations, such as with gay and bisexual men, than in the general population.

All HIV tests need to have reactive results (a preliminary positive result) confirmed with further tests. Most providers tell people who are testing that a negative result is definitive, but that a reactive result simply indicates the need for further laboratory testing.

The accuracy of different rapid tests

A wide range of point-of-care tests have been manufactured in many countries, but only a few of them have been subject to rigorous, independent evaluations, and even fewer are marketed in the UK. Research on HIV tests is only occasionally published in medical journals. Informally, laboratory professionals may have insights into which tests perform best.

It is important to verify that any test used is CE marked. This should mean that the test conforms to European health and safety legislation, although it does not necessarily mean that test performance has been independently evaluated.

There are variations in accuracy from one test to another, with some older tests that are not usually marketed in the UK having a sub-optimal sensitivity and specificity. However, evaluations by the World Health Organization of several rapid diagnostic tests that either have CE marks or are approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA), indicate that most are extremely accurate. The key measures of accuracy are sensitivity (the percentage of results that are correctly positive when HIV is actually present) and specificity (the percentage of results that are correctly negative when HIV is not present).

Of note, in the World Health Organization data below, most tests were performed with samples of plasma or serum. However, the tests are less sensitive when testing whole blood sampled from a finger prick. There is one test (the OraQuick Advance Rapid HIV-1/2) which can also test oral fluid samples in addition to blood.

Also, the figures on sensitivity are based on samples from people who had chronic (not recent) HIV infection, but the tests are less accurate in cases of accurate infection, especially those which only detect immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies.

Test

Detects

Sensitivity

Specificity

OraQuick HIV-1/2 Rapid HIV-1/2 (OraSure)

IgG

99.1%

100%

HIV 1/2 STAT-PAK (Chembio)

IgG

99.5%

100%

Determine HIV Early Detect (Abbott) IgG + IgM + p24 100% 99.4%

Determine HIV-1/2 (Abbott)

IgG + IgM + p24

100%

98.9%

Uni-Gold HIV (Trinity)

IgG + IgM

99.8%

99.9%

INSTI HIV-1/HIV-2 Antibody Test (bioLytical)

IgG + IgM

100%

99.7%

SD BIOLINE HIV-1/2 3.0 (Standard Diagnostics)

IgG + IgM

99.8%

99.8%

DPP® HIV 1/2 Assay (Chembio)

IgG

99.9%

99.9%

There is one rapid, point-of-care test that looks for both antibodies and p24 antigen, in a similar way to antibody/antigen laboratory tests. The Determine HIV-1/2 Ag/Ab Combo was originally introduced in 2009, with an updated version that is now called the Determine HIV Early Detect launched in Europe in 2015 (the older version is still marketed in the United States and in some parts of the world).

The promise of having a ‘fourth-generation’ point of care test that detects p24 antigen is that the window period should be shortened. However, several studies found that although the older version of this test performed well in respect of established HIV infection, its ability to detect accurate HIV infection did not match that of laboratory antibody/antigen tests. The test was quite insensitive to p24 antigen, making it only marginally better than antibody-only tests in detecting acute (recent) infection.

"All HIV tests need to have reactive results (a preliminary positive result) confirmed with further tests."

The handful of studies published so far on the newer version suggests it has better performance in acute infection, although it still does not match that of antibody/antigen laboratory tests. The Determine HIV Early Detect’s sensitivity during acute infection has been variously estimated to be 28% (in three African countries), 54% (France), 65% (the Netherlands) and 88% (UK).

An analysis pooled the results of 18 separate studies in which a point-of-care test (including Determine, OraQuick, UniGold and INSTI) was compared with a more sensitive laboratory test. Compared with fourth-generation laboratory tests, the estimated sensitivity of the point-of-care tests was 94.5% (95% confidence interval 87.4-97.7) and specificity was 99.6% (99.4-99.7). Compared with RNA (viral load) tests, the estimated sensitivity was 93.7% (95% confidence interval 88.7-96.5) and specificity 98.1% (95% CI: 97.9-98.2).

Sensitivity was higher in nine studies conducted in African countries than in the nine studies conducted in the United States and other wealthy countries. This is likely to be due to different populations coming forward for screening. Whereas 4.7% of those testing positive in African studies had acute (recent) HIV infection, this figure rose to 13.6% in the high-income countries.

Glossary

antibody

A protein substance (immunoglobulin) produced by the immune system in response to a foreign organism. Many diagnostic tests for HIV detect the presence of antibodies to HIV in blood.

point-of-care test

A test in which all stages, including reading the result, can be conducted in a doctor’s office or a community setting, without specialised laboratory equipment. Sometimes also described as a rapid test.

window period

In HIV testing, the period of time after infection and before seroconversion during which markers of infection are still absent or too scarce to be detectable. All tests have a window period, the length of which depends on the marker of infection (HIV RNA, p24 antigen or HIV antibodies) and the specific test used. During the window period, a person can have a negative result on an HIV test despite having HIV.

p24

An HIV antigen that makes up most of the HIV viral core. High levels of p24 are present in the blood during the short period between HIV infection and seroconversion, before fading away. Since p24 antigen is usually detectable a few days before HIV antibodies, a diagnostic test that can detect p24 has a slightly shorter window period than a test that only detects antibodies.

reactive

Because of the possibility that a positive result from a single HIV test is, in fact, a false positive, the result is described as 'reactive' rather than 'positive'. If the result is reactive, this indicates that the test has reacted to something in the blood and needs to be investigated with follow-up tests.

A study in five African countries found that the performance of point-of-care tests was sub-optimal. Samples from some countries were more likely to have false positive results than others, suggesting that tests need to be locally validated and that some tests may be more accurate in relation to some HIV subtypes than others. The researchers found a high number of false positive results, whereas false negative results were relatively rare. The specificities of the First Response HIV Card Test 1–2.0, INSTI HIV-1/HIV-2 Antibody Test, Determine HIV-1/2 and Genie Fast HIV 1/2 were all between 90 and 95%. The findings confirm that the diagnosis of HIV should not be based on results from a single HIV rapid diagnostic test. A combination of HIV tests, and more specifically an algorithm (sequence) of two or three different tests, is required to make an HIV-positive diagnosis. This is recommended in testing guidelines.

All HIV tests need to have reactive (preliminary positive) results confirmed with confirmatory tests. A particular challenge healthcare workers have with rapid tests is how to communicate a reactive result to the person testing (who may be present while the result is being read) and explain that supplementary tests are needed. These problems are less frequently faced with laboratory testing – a large enough blood sample was taken to allow for it to be tested several times and for uncertainties in the diagnosis to be resolved.

Window periods of rapid tests

The window period refers to the time after infection and before seroconversion, during which markers of infection (p24 antigen and antibodies) are still absent or too scarce to be detectable. Tests cannot reliably detect HIV infection until after the window period has passed. All tests have a window period, which varies from test to test.

Delaney and colleagues estimated window periods for a handful of rapid tests in a 2017 study. However, all these estimates were based on testing blood plasma. In practice, tests are usually done on fingerprick blood (obtained by pricking the finger with a lancet) and the window period is likely to be several days longer.

The fourth-generation Determine HIV-1/2 Ag/Ab Combo was estimated to have a median window period of 19 days (interquartile range 15 to 25 days). This indicates that half of all infections would be detected between 15 and 25 days after exposure. Ninety-nine per cent of HIV-infected individuals would be detectable within 43 days of exposure.

The third-generation INSTI HIV-1/HIV-2 test was estimated to have a median window period of 26 days (interquartile range 22 to 31 days). This indicates that half of all infections would be detected between 22 and 31 days after exposure. Ninety-nine per cent of HIV-infected individuals would be detectable within 50 days of exposure.

Several second-generation tests, such as OraQuick Advance Rapid HIV 1/2, Clearview HIV 1/2 STAT-PACK and SURE CHECK HIV 1/2 were evaluated. The median window period was 31 days (interquartile range 26 to 37 days). This indicates that half of all infections would be detected between 26 and 37 days after exposure. Ninety-nine per cent of HIV-infected individuals would be detectable within 57 days of exposure.

UK guidelines take a cautious approach, describing the window period for all rapid, point-of-care tests as 90 days.

If you are testing with a rapid, point-of-care test and you are concerned that you may have been exposed to HIV during the test’s window period, you could also be tested with a fourth-generation laboratory test. This requires a blood sample, taken through a needle from a vein in the arm, which is tested in a laboratory using a more sensitive test. The results should be available after a few days.

Situations in which rapid tests may not be accurate

Performance of rapid tests is poorer in a number of situations. Results may not be accurate.

What do the test results mean?

There are three possible test results:

1) Negative (may also be described as ‘non-reactive’). The test did not find any evidence of HIV infection. You probably don’t have HIV (so long as you aren’t testing in one of the situations described in the last section).

2) Reactive (often incorrectly described as ‘positive’ by manufacturers). The test assay has reacted to a substance in your blood. This does not necessarily mean that you are HIV positive. It means you need to take more tests to confirm the result. These extra tests are best done at a healthcare facility where they have access to the most accurate HIV testing technologies.

3) ‘Indeterminate’, ‘equivocal’ or ‘invalid’. The test result is unclear. Another test needs to be done.

Tue, 23 Dec 2014 15:44:00 -0600 en text/html https://www.aidsmap.com/about-hiv/how-accurate-are-rapid-point-care-tests-hiv
Killexams : Calculus Readiness Test Practice Test

The questions that follow are designed to make prospective students aware of the mathematics background required for those intending to take one of the SFU Calculus courses: MATH 150, 151, 154 or 157. The real test will cover the same concepts as this VCE exam does, but the questions will be different. For more information about the expectations, read Calculus Readiness Test Assessment Topics.

If you do not achieve a passing score on the real test, we recommend that you enroll in Math 100 course, Precalculus.

Treat the Practice Calculus Readiness Test as a learning experience: if your answer to a question is incorrect, make sure that you understand the concept the question is related to before attempting the real test.

You should be aware of the following conditions when you attempt this practice test:

  1. To be admitted to MATH 151, you must answer at least 24 questions out of the 30 questions correctly (on the real test, not the practice test). For the other Calculus courses, the passing score is 20. The VCE exam does not keep track of your success rate - you will have to keep track of it yourself.
  2. You may take as much time as you like to complete the practice test. However, the real test will be timed: you will have 1.5 hour for completion of the test.
  3. On the practice test, you will be allowed multiple attempts at each question. On the real test, you will be allowed to attempt each question only once.
  4. You may take the VCE exam as many times as you wish. However, you will be allowed to take the real test only once.
  5. You will have to write the real test in person at the SFU Burnaby campus, and you will have to book a specific time to take it. You will not be permitted to bring any electronic devices to the test, but the software you will be using will allow you to use a basic four-function calculator if you wish to do so.
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Killexams : Practice Test

The questions that follow are designed to make prospective students aware of the mathematics background required for those intending to take courses that are designated as Quantitative/Analytical (Q courses). The real test will cover the same concepts as this VCE exam does, but the questions will be different. For more information about the expectations, read Q Assessment Topics.

If you do not achieve a passing score on the real test, you will be required to enroll in and pass the course FAN X99: Foundations of Analytical and Quantitative Reasoning prior to taking any Q courses at SFU.

You should be aware of the following conditions when you attempt this practice test:

  1. The passing score on the Q Placement Test is 20 correct answers out of the 30 questions. The VCE exam does not keep track of your success rate - you will have to keep track of it yourself.
  2. You may take as much time as you like to complete the practice test. However, the real test will be timed: you will have 1.5 hour for completion of the test.
  3. On the practice test, you will be allowed multiple attempts at each question. On the real test, you will be allowed to attempt each question only once.
  4. You may take the VCE exam as many times as you wish. However, you will be allowed to take the real test only once.
  5. You will have to write the real test in person at the SFU Burnaby campus, and you will have to book a specific time to take it. You will not be permitted to bring any electronic devices to the test, but the software you will be using will allow you to use a basic four-function calculator if you wish to do so.
Thu, 21 Apr 2022 09:31:00 -0500 en text/html https://www.sfu.ca/math/undergraduate/advising/placement-test/q-test-practice-test.html
Killexams : Measurement: Practice Test

What does a scale measure? What are the different units of measurement? Which animal weighs less than a pound? Use this review worksheet to get your second graders thinking about length, weight, and volume. This worksheet may look like a measurement practice test, but it’s also a great way to start a conversation about important math concepts.

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Sun, 15 Aug 2010 23:00:00 -0500 en text/html https://www.education.com/worksheet/article/practice-test-measurement/
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